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CHAPTER 2: BIOLOGICAL BEGINNINGS
Multiple Choice Questions
1. _____ is the evolutionary process by which those individuals of a species that are best
adapted are the ones that survive and reproduce.
a. Genetic selection
b. Natural adaptation
c. Natural selection
d. Genetic survival
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 54
2. _____ behavior is behavior that promotes an organism’s survival in the natural habitat.
a. Adaptive
b. Aggressive
c. Dominant
d. Adjusting
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 55
3. _____ introduced the theory of evolution by natural selection in 1859.
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Charles Darwin
c. Stephen Hawking
d. Wilhelm Wundt
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 55
4. Evolution takes place:
a. over many generations.
b. almost immediately.
c. when the species is ready for it.
d. after active attempts at change on the part of the species.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 55
5. Psychology’s newest approach, _____, emphasizes the importance of adaptation,
reproduction, and “survival of the fittest” in shaping behavior.
a. behavioral psychology
b. humanistic psychology
c. cognitive psychology
d. evolutionary psychology
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 55
6. According to evolutionary developmental psychologists, many evolved psychological
mechanisms are _____. That is, the mechanisms apply only to a specific aspect of a
person’s makeup.
a. domain-specific
b. maladjusted
c. non-operational
d. general purpose devices
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 56
7. The food-scarce environment of our ancestors likely led to humans’ propensity to
gorge when food is available and to crave high-caloric foods—a trait that might lead to
an epidemic of obesity when food is plentiful. This illustrates how:
a. many evolved psychological mechanisms are domain-specific.
b. evolved mechanisms are not always adaptive in contemporary society.
c. the evolution of specialized cognitive modules occur.
d. the benefits of evolutionary selection decrease with age.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 56
8. According to Baltes, the benefits conferred with evolutionary selection _______ with
age.
a. increase
b. stay the same
c. decrease
d. fluctuate
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 56
9. According to life-span developmentalist Paul Baltes, the benefits conferred by
evolutionary selection decrease with age. Natural selection has not weeded out many
harmful conditions and nonadaptive characteristics that appear among older adults. Why?
a. Degeneration is an irreversible process.
b. Natural selection operates primarily on characteristics that are tied to reproductive
fitness.
c. Human evolution excluded the previous generation.
d. Evolved mechanisms are not always adaptive in contemporary society.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Analysis
Page(s): 56
10. Which of the following statements is true about evolutionary developmental
psychology?
a. Many evolved psychological mechanisms apply only to a specific aspect of a person’s
makeup.
b. The mind is a general-purpose device that can be applied equally to a vast array of
problems.
c. All behaviors that were adaptive for our prehistoric ancestors serve us well today.
d. Evolution has not impacted human development.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 56
11. Baltes says that natural selection among humans operates mainly during the _____ of
life.
a. second half
b. last years
c. first half
d. first year
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 56
12. As the benefits of evolutionary selection decrease with age, Baltes argues, the need
for all of the following increases, EXCEPT:
a. social support
b. medical technology
c. job training
d. culture
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 56
13. As an alternative to “_____ evolutionism” presented in evolutionary psychology,
Albert Bandura proposed a _____ view.
a. bidirectional; unidirectional
b. one-sided; bidirectional
c. dynamic; linear
d. balanced; biased
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 56
14. A fertilized human egg cannot grow into a crocodile, duck or fish specifically because
of:
a. natural selection.
b. evolution.
c. adaptive behavior.
d. genetic code.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 57
15. _____ is a complex molecule with a double helix shape, like a spiral staircase, and
contains genetic information.
a. RNA
b. Chromosome
c. DNA
d. Ribosome
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 58
16. _____, the units of hereditary information, are short segments of DNA. They direct
cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins.
a. Genes
b. Chromosomes
c. RNA
d. Ribosomes
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 58
17. _____ are the building blocks of cells as well as the regulators that direct the body’s
processes.
a. Genes
b. Proteins
c. Ribosomes
d. DNA
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page (s): 58
18. Scientists had thought that humans had as many as 100,000 or more genes, but recent
research indicates a figure of approximately:
a. 250
b. 1,500
c. 20,500
d. 10,00,000
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 58
19. Which of the following statements about the activity of genes is true?
a. Genes are not collaborative.
b. A single gene is usually the source of an inherited trait.
c. Genetic expression is unaffected by environmental factors.
d. Events inside of the cell can excite or inhibit genetic expression.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 58
20. What are gametes?
a. Zygotes
b. Embryos
c. Fertilized eggs
d. Eggs and sperm
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
21. _____ is a stage in reproduction whereby an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single
cell.
a. Fertilization
b. Osmosis
c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
22. During the process of _____, the cell’s nucleus—including the chromosomes—
duplicates itself and the cell divides.
a. meiosis
b. osmosis
c. fertilization
d. mitosis
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
23. Except for the sperm and the egg, all cells in the human body have _____
chromosomes.
a. 10
b. 32
c. 23
d. 46
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
24. During_____, a cell of the testes in men or ovaries in women duplicates its
chromosomes and then divides twice, thus forming four cells, each of which has only half
the genetic material of the parent cell.
a. meiosis
b. mitosis
c. osmosis
d. fertilization
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
25. By the end of meiosis, each egg or sperm has _____ chromosomes.
a. 46 paired
b. 23 unpaired
c. 23 paired
d. 46 unpaired
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
26. During fertilization, an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single cell called a(n) _____.
a. embryo
b. fetus
c. spore
d. zygote
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
27. Sasha’s 23rd chromosome pair contains two X chromosomes. This indicates that
Sasha:
a. has Down syndrome.
b. has fragile X syndrome.
c. is female.
d. is male.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 59
28. Ashley’s 23rd chromosome pair consists of an X chromosome and a Y chromosome.
This indicates that Ashley:
a. has Down syndrome.
b. has XYY syndrome.
c. is female.
d. is male.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 59
29. Combining the genes of two parents in offspring is one of the ways in which _____
increases in the population, which is valuable for a species because it provides more
characteristics for natural selection to operate on.
a. the number of males
b. the number of females
c. genetic variability
d. gender variability
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 59-60
30. _____ develop from a single zygote that splits into two genetically identical replicas,
each of which becomes a person.
a. Dizygotic twins
b. Identical twins
c. Fraternal twins
d. Duozygotic twins
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
31. Melody and Harmony are identical twins. This means that they developed from:
a. a single egg that was fertilized by a single sperm.
b. a single egg that was fertilized by two different sperm.
c. two eggs that were fertilized by a single sperm.
d. two eggs that were fertilized by two different sperm.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 60
32. Jerome and Tyrone are fraternal twins. This means that they developed from:
a. a single egg that was fertilized by a single sperm.
b. a single egg that was fertilized by two different sperm.
c. two eggs that were fertilized by a single sperm.
d. two eggs that were fertilized by two different sperm.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 60
33. A mistake by cellular machinery, or damage from an environmental agent such as
radiation may produce a(n) _____, which is a permanently altered segment of DNA.
a. susceptibility gene
b. vulnerability gene
c. longevity gene
d. mutated gene
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
34. _____ genes are those that make the individual more vulnerable to specific diseases
or acceleration of aging.
a. Susceptibility
b. Longevity
c. Vulnerability
d. Mutated
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
35. Ethel, 60, has a history of allergies and asthma. Which genes could be making her
more vulnerable to these health conditions?
a. Susceptibility genes
b. Longevity genes
c. Vulnerability genes
d. Mutated genes
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 60
36. _____ genes are those that make the individual less vulnerable to certain diseases and
be more likely to live to an older age.
a. Susceptibility
b. Longevity
c. Vulnerability
d. Mutated
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
37. Smita is 90 and still working full-time and running marathons. Which gene could be
making Smita less vulnerable to diseases and more likely to live to a ripe, old age?
a. Susceptibility genes
b. Longevity genes
c. Vulnerability genes
d. Mutated genes
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 60
38. Emma and Anna are identical twins who were adopted by different families a few
weeks after birth. Although genetically identical, they grew up with different physical
and psychological characteristics. For example, though both inherited a tendency to grow
large, Anna was slim and athletic due to the active lifestyle practiced in her adoptive
family. This variability can be explained by how:
a. each zygote is unique.
b. longevity genes can make an individual less vulnerable to certain diseases.
c. for each genotype, a range of phenotypes can be expressed .
d. mutated genes can be a source of genetic variability.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Analysis
Page(s): 60
39. _____ refers to a person’s genetic heritage; the actual genetic material.
a. Phenotype
b. RNA
c. Genotype
d. Ribosomes
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
40. A genotype is _____ percent of a person’s genetic material.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 25
d. 5
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
41. _____ is the way an individual’s genotype is expressed in observable and measurable
characteristics.
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Phenotype
d. Stereotype
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
42. Marly describes her friend, Gina, as having blonde hair, green eyes, and fair skin with
freckles. Marly has described Gina’s _____.
a. genotype
b. genetic imprint
c. phenotype
d. X-linked inheritance
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page (s): 60
43. A phenotype can consist of _____ as well as _____ characteristics.
a. physical; environmental
b. conscious; subconscious
c. genetic; derived
d. physical; psychological
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
44. For each genotype, _____ phenotypes can be expressed, providing another source of
variability.
a. only single
b. a range of
c. two
d. no
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
45. In some cases, one gene of a pair always exerts its effects, overriding the potential
influence of the other gene. This is the _____ principle.
a. sex-linked genes
b. dominant-recessive genes
c. genetic imprinting
d. polygenic inheritance
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 61
46. A recessive gene exerts its influence only if:
a. both genes in a pair are recessive.
b. it is the stronger gene.
c. the environment is right.
d. the dominant gene cedes its influence.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 61
47. Most individuals who have X-linked diseases are _____.
a. males
b. females
c. intersex
d. hemophiliacs
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 61
48. Which of the following is an example of an X-linked inheritance disease?
a. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
b. Hemophilia
c. Wilms tumor
d. Diabetes
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 61
49. _____ occurs when the expression of a gene has different effects depending on
whether the mother or the father passed on the gene.
a. Polygenic inheritance
b. X-linked inheritance
c. Genetic imprinting
d. Y-linked inheritance
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 61
50. _____ human genes appear to undergo imprinting.
a. All
b. A small percentage of
c. Most
d. About 50 percent of
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 61
51. Vivanta has been diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, a growth disorder,
which the doctor has indicated could be a result of _____ going awry.
a. genetic imprinting
b. polygenic inheritance
c. sex-linked genes
d. chromosomes
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 61
52. Most characteristics are:
a. determined by a single gene.
b. determined by a pair of genes.
c. monogenically determined.
d. polygenically determined.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 61
53. Chromosomal abnormalities occur when:
a. whole chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis.
b. harmful genes are suppressed.
c. extra proteins are made by the cells.
d. there is a deficiency in the DNA in the cells.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 62
54. Jason was born with _____. The doctor tells his parents that this genetic disorder
occurred because he has an extra copy of chromosome 21.
a. fragile X syndrome
b. Klinefelter disease
c. Down syndrome
d. Tay Sach’s disease
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 62
55. Which of the following is a chromosomal abnormality?
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Huntington disease
c. Spina bifida
d. Down syndrome
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 62
56. Which of the following women has the highest probability of giving birth to a child
with Down syndrome?
a. Sarah, a 21-year-old Asian woman
b. Jane, a 41-year-old Euro-American woman
c. Ella, a 27-year-old African American woman
d. Destiny, a 38-year-old African American woman
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 62
57. Klinefelter syndrome affects:
a. males only.
b. females only.
c. both males and females equally.
d. more females than males.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 62
58. Tom is a tall man with undeveloped testes and enlarged breasts. His doctor has
determined that he has an extra X chromosome leading to a diagnosis of:
a. Down syndrome.
b. fragile X syndrome.
c. Klinefelter syndrome.
d. Turner syndrome.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 62
59. Klinefelter syndrome occurs in approximately _____ live births.
a. 1 in 100
b. 1 in 600
c. 1 in 10,000
d. 1 in 100,000
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 62
60. _____ is a genetic disorder that results from an abnormality in the X chromosome,
which becomes constricted and often breaks.
a. Fragile X syndrome
b. XYY syndrome
c. Turner syndrome
d. Tay-Sach’s disease
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 62
61. Fragile X syndrome occurs:
a. more often in males than in females.
b. in females.
c. in both sexes equally.
d. in males.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 62
62. _____ is a chromosomal disorder in females in which either an X chromosome is
missing, making the person XO instead of XX, or part of one X chromosome is deleted.
a. Fragile X syndrome
b. The XYY syndrome
c. Klinefelter syndrome
d. Turner syndrome
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
63. Turner syndrome occurs in approximately _____ live births.
a. 1 in 100
b. 1 in 2,500
c. 1 in 22,500
d. 1 in 40,000
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
64. Sandra excels in reading and spelling but struggles with mathematics. She is shorter
than her peers and has a webbed neck. Her doctor has determined that she has one X
chromosome missing. Sandra most likely has:
a. XYY syndrome.
b. Fragile X syndrome.
c. Turner syndrome.
d. XXO syndrome.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 63
65. Turner syndrome occurs exclusively in:
a. females.
b. males.
c. people of Middle Eastern descent.
d. people of Jewish descent.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
66. Early interest in the XYY syndrome focused on the belief that the extra Y
chromosome found in some males contributed to _____. However, subsequent research
has proved this to be _____.
a. aggression and violence; false
b. aggression and violence; true
c. impotence; false
d. impotence; true
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
67. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder in which the individual cannot properly
metabolize _____, an amino acid.
a. ketonuria
b. phenylalanine
c. phenoxide
d. ketonalanine
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
68. Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs in approximately ________ live births.
a. 1 in 100 to 200
b. 1 in 1,000 to 2,000
c. 1 in 10,000 to 20,000
d. 1 in 100,000 to 150,000
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
69. Mateo is on a special diet because his parents are aware that he cannot metabolize
phenylalanine, an amino acid. Buildup of this amino acid in his system could result in
mental retardation. Mateo has:
a. Down syndrome.
b. phenylketonuria (PKU).
c. sickle-cell anemia.
d. Huntington’s disease.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 63
70. Which of the following is a gene-linked abnormality?
a. Down syndrome.
b. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
c. Turner syndrome
d. Klinefelter syndrome
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
71. Sickle-cell anemia occurs most often in:
a. African Americans.
b. Hispanic Americans.
c. Native Americans.
d. Asian Americans.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
72. In this genetic disorder, the body’s red blood cells take on a hook shape instead of the
normal disk shape.
a. Tay-Sach’s disease
b. Sickle-cell anemia
c. Leukemia
d. Huntington disease
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
73. Approximately ________ African Americans is a carrier for sickle-cell anemia.
a. 1 in 50
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 10
d. 1 in 200
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 63
74. Patrick suffers from _____ a genetic abnormality in which delayed blood clotting
causes internal and external bleeding.
a. hemophilia
b. PKU
c. sickle-cell anemia
d. Tay-Sachs disease
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
75. Paul suffers from hemophilia. Suggest an appropriate treatment option for Paul’s
condition.
a. Insulin
b. Blood transfusions/injections
c. Physical and oxygen therapy
d. Corrective surgery at birth
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
76. Samantha has been diagnosed with _____, which is a glandular dysfunction that
interferes with mucus production.
a. cystic fibrosis
b. Huntington disease
c. PKU
d. Tay-Sachs disease
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
77. Penny has been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following would be an
appropriate course of treatment for her?
a. Corrective surgery at birth, orthopedic devices
b. Special diet
c. Blood transfusions/injections
d. Physical and oxygen therapy, synthetic enzymes, and antibiotics
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
78. Mary and Jim are expecting a child and prenatal diagnostic procedures have
confirmed that the fetus has _____, a neural tube disorder that causes brain and spine
abnormalities. Their physician has explained that this gene-linked abnormality could be
treated with corrective surgery at birth, orthopedic devices, and physical or medical
therapy.
a. spina bifida
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. PKU
d. Huntington disease
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
79. Lindsay’s body does not produce enough insulin, causing an abnormal metabolism of
sugar. She is receiving insulin treatment. Lindsay has:
a. spina bifida.
b. hemophilia.
c. PKU.
d. diabetes.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
80. Joshua, 2, has been diagnosed with _____, a blood disorder that limits the body’s
oxygen supply and can cause joint swelling and heart and kidney failure. This genetic
disorder can be treated through penicillin, pain medication, antibiotics and blood
transfusions, and his doctor has indicated that a study named Baby HUG may offer a
better drug in the future.
a. spina bifida
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. sickle-cell anemia
d. Huntington disease
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
81. Benny has been diagnosed with a gene-linked abnormality characterized by
deceleration of mental and physical development caused by an accumulation of lipids in
the nervous system. He has been put on medication and a special diet, but his family has
been told that he will probably not live beyond the age of five. Benny is suffering from:
a. Spina bifida
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. PKU
d. Huntington disease
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page (s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
82. Sally and David would like to have a baby but they are worried about the prevalence
of sickle-cell anemia in their family. Which of the following professionals would be best
able to analyze inheritance patterns and assist the Whites with their decision to have a
child or not?
a. Pediatrician
b. Neo-natologist
c. High-risk obstetrics nurse
d. Genetic counselor
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page (s): 64
83. Betty is a member of a health-care team at Ridgewater Memorial Hospital, providing
information and support to families with birth defects or genetic disorders. She helps
identify families at risk by analyzing inheritance patterns and explores options with the
family. Betty is a(n):
a. evolutionary psychologist.
b. behavior geneticist.
c. genetic counselor.
d. high-risk obstetrics nurse.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page (s): 64
84 _____ is a prenatal medical procedure in which high-frequency sound waves are
directed into the pregnant woman’s abdomen.
a. Chorionic villus sampling
b. Triple screen
c. Amniocentesis
d. Ultrasound sonography
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66
85. Seven weeks into her pregnancy, Tina’s obstetrician asked her to undergo a prenatal
medical procedure in which high-frequency sound waves were directed into Tina’s
abdomen, and echo from the sounds were transformed into a visual representation of the
fetus’s inner structures. This procedure is called:
a. chorionic villus sampling.
b. triple screen.
c. NIPD.
d. ultrasound sonography.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 66
86. _____ uses a powerful magnet and radio images to generate detailed images of the
body’s organs and structures.
a. Triple screen
b. MRI
c. Ultrasound sonography
d. Amniocentesis
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66
87. _____ is a prenatal medical procedure in which a small sample of the placenta (the
vascular organ that links the fetus to the mother’s uterus) is removed.
a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
b. Amniocentesis
c. NIPD
d. Triple screen
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66
88. Identify a risk related to the use of CVS as a prenatal diagnostic test.
a. Limb deformity
b. Spina bifida
c. Down syndrome
d. Mental retardation
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66
89. _____ is a prenatal medical procedure in which a sample of amniotic fluid is
withdrawn by syringe and tested for chromosomal or metabolic disorders.
a. Chorionic villus sampling
b. Triple screen
c. Amniocentesis
d. NIPD
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66-67
90. Amniocentesis brings a small risk of:
a. mental retardation.
b. limb deformity.
c. miscarriage.
d. Down syndrome.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66-67
91. Which of the following statements regarding chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and
amniocentesis is true?
a. There is no difference in loss of pregnancy risk between CVS and amniocentesis.
b. CVS is performed between the 18th and 20th weeks of pregnancy.
c. The results of an amniocentesis take approximately 6 weeks to be obtained.
d. Amniocentesis allows a decision on abortion to be made sooner.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 66-67
92. The current maternal blood screening test is called the triple screen because:
a. it is performed three times.
b. it diagnoses three diseases.
c. it measures three substances in the mother’s blood.
d. it is the third prenatal diagnostic test performed in a pregnancy.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 67
93. After an abnormal triple screen result, the next step is usually a(n):
a. alpha-fetoprotein test.
b. ultrasound examination.
c. PUBS.
d. nonstress test.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 67
94. Ingrid got an ultrasound examination done after receiving an abnormal triple screen
result. However, the ultrasound failed to explain the abnormal result. What further testing
would you, as her physician, typically recommend for her next?
a. Amniocentesis
b. CVS
c. PUBS
d. Nonstress test
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 67
95. At this point, _____ has mainly focused on the isolation and examination of fetal cells
circulating in the mother’s blood and analysis of cell-free fetal DNA in maternal plasma
a. amniocentesis
b. CVS
c. NIPD
d. triple screen
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 67
96. Researchers are exploring the potential for using NIPD to diagnose a baby’s sex, as
early as five weeks after conception, and Down syndrome. However, being able to detect
an offspring’s sex and various diseases and defects so early through NIPD raises ethical
concerns about:
a. nature versus nurture.
b. physical and psychological consequences for children.
c. couples’ motivation to terminate a pregnancy.
d. causing mental retardation in fetuses.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 67
97. Don and Ellie are trying to conceive a baby. How long should they wait before they
suspect infertility?
a. 3 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 67
98. Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation for infertility in a woman?
a. Abnormal ova
b. Blocked fallopian tubes
c. Eggs lack motility
d. Disease of the uterus
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 67
99. By far the most common high-tech assisted reproduction technique used is _____.
a. CVS
b. IVF
c. NIPD
d. PGD
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 68
100. David and Kelly are seeking help for infertility. Under their physician’s guidance,
they decide to undergo a procedure in which Kelly’s eggs are combined in a laboratory
dish with her husband’s sperms. What is this procedure called?
a. Gamete transfer
b. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
c. Zygote intrafallopian transfer
d. In vitro fertilization
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 68
101. Summer and Clark are considering undergoing fertility treatments. What is one of
the main risk factors that the couple must be aware of while weighing their options?
a. High birth weight in babies conceived through such treatments.
b. An increase in the possibility of multiple births when such treatments are used.
c. Negative psychological impact on children conceived through such treatments.
d. Significant differences in developmental outcomes for children conceived through
such treatments.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 68
102. Using measures of social adjustment and psychological functioning, Golombok and
colleagues compared adolescents who were naturally conceived, adolescents conceived
through in vitro fertilization, and adolescents who were adopted. Their findings revealed
that:
a. there were no differences between the three groups.
b. the children conceived naturally fared well; the adolescents who were conceived
through in vitro fertilization and the adolescents who were adopted had difficulties in
these areas.
c. the children conceived naturally and those who were conceived through in vitro
fertilization fared well; the adolescents who had been adopted had difficulties in these
areas.
d. the children who were conceived naturally and those who were adopted fared well; the
adolescents who were conceived through in vitro fertilization had difficulties in these
areas.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 68-69
103. _____ is the social and legal process by which a parent-child relationship is
established between persons unrelated at birth.
a. Kinship care
b. Rebirthing
c. Guardianship
d. Adoption
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 68
104. Increasingly, U.S. couples are adopting:
a. only healthy children.
b. non-Latino White infants.
c. a much wider diversity of children.
d. infants at birth.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 68
105. Adoptive parents in recent decades have tended to be:
a. married.
b. increasingly diverse.
c. non-Latino White.
d. from upper socioeconomic status backgrounds.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 68
106. Shakena is a 38-year-old single woman who works as a pharmaceutical
representative. She would like to adopt a child. Recent changes in adoption requirements
would mean that:
a. she would not be considered as a candidate for adopting a child because she is single.
b. she would need to prove that her income was at least $35,000 before she would be
considered as a candidate for adopting a child.
c. she would need to show that she had a home with a separate bedroom for a child before
she would be considered as a candidate for adoption.
d. she would be considered as a candidate for adopting a child.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 68
107. Which of the following statements is true regarding the differences between
outcomes for adopted and nonadopted children?
a. Nonadopted children are likely to experience more school-related problems than
adopted children.
b. Children who are adopted very early in their lives are more likely to have positive
outcomes than children adopted later in life.
c. Adoptees were no more likely to be using mental health services than their nonadopted
counterparts.
d. Adopted adolescents were more likely to be withdrawn.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Pages(s): 68
108. When children are about _____, it is a natural time to begin to talk in simple ways to
them about their adoption status:
a. 12 to 14 years old.
b. 8 to 10 years old.
c. 4 to 6 years old.
d. 10 to 12 years old.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 70
109. Lisa and Brent adopted Patricia who is now 6 years old and is asking questions
about where she came from. Lisa and Brent should:
a. put off telling her about her adoption status till she’s about 10.
b. begin to talk to her in simple ways about her adoption status.
c. tell her that she is their biological child.
d. create a perfect life for her and present a perfect image of themselves to her.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 70
110. Sandra-Leigh, 10, is adopted and has recently started to develop mixed feelings
about being adopted and question her adoptive parents’ explanations. Her parents should:
a. recognize that this ambivalence is normal.
b. try to create a perfect life for her.
c. try to present a perfect image of themselves to her.
d. recognize that this ambivalence calls for psychiatric intervention.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 70
111. Of late, Mary-Anne has started to develop more abstract and logical thinking, is
focusing attention on her body, and is searching for an identity. She is having difficulty
incorporating her adopted status in positive ways into her identity. Mary-Anne is most
likely in:
a. early childhood.
b. middle or late childhood.
c. adolescence.
d. adulthood.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 70
112. _____ is the field that seeks to discover the influence of heredity and environment
on individual differences in human traits and development.
a. Behavior influence
b. Behavior therapy
c. Behavior genetics
d. Behavior development
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 71
113. To study the influence of heredity on behavior, the most common study used by
behavior geneticists is a(n):
a. behavior study.
b. twin study.
c. life study.
d. adoption study.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 71
114. Dr. Myers wants to study the behavioral similarity between identical twins Zoe and
Miranda and compare it with the behavioral similarity of fraternal twins Sally and
Melanie. Dr. Myers wants to do a(n):
a. adoption study
b. sibling study
c. life study
d. twin study
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 71
115. Dr. Brown is investigating whether the behavior and psychological characteristics of
adopted children are more like those of their adoptive parents, who have provided a home
environment, or more like those of their biological parents, who have contributed their
heredity. He is doing a(n):
a. life study.
b. twin study.
c. sibling study.
d. adoption study.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 72
116. Rachel loves to read books and also encourages her daughter to read by regularly
taking her to the local library and buying her lots of books. Rachel’s daughter is now an
avid reader. This reflects a _____ correlation:
a. passive genotype-environment
b. evocative genotype–environment
c. influential genotype–environment
d. active (niche-picking) genotype–environment
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 72
117. _____ correlations occur because a child’s characteristics elicit certain types of
environments.
a. Passive genotype–environment
b. Evocative genotype-environment
c. Influential genotype–environment
d. Active (niche-picking) genotype–environment
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 72
118. Charlie is a cooperative, attentive child and is a favorite at home and school and
receives positive, instructive responses from adults. This is indicative of a(n):
a. passive genotype–environment correlation.
b. evocative genotype-environment correlation.
c. influential genotype–environment correlation.
d. active (niche-picking) genotype–environment correlation.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 72
119. Brad is an athletic boy who is on every sport team in school. Stephen loves math and
is part of his school’s math club. These instances reflect _____ correlations that occur
when children seek out environments that they find compatible and stimulating.
a. passive genotype–environment
b. evocative genotype–environment
c. active (niche-picking) genotype-environment
d. influential genotype–environment
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 72
120. According to Sandra Scarr, passive genotype-environment correlations are relatively
more common in the lives of:
a. infants and young children.
b. older children.
c. adolescents.
d. adults.
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 73
121. Parents’ personalities or intellectual orientation, the family’s socioeconomic status,
and the neighborhood in which they live are all instances of the _____ of siblings.
a. nonshared environmental experiences
b. shared genetic traits
c. shared environmental experiences
d. nonshared genetic traits
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 73
122. Parents often interact differently with each sibling, and siblings interact differently
with parents. Even these experiences occurring within the family can be part of the _____
of siblings.
a. shared environment
b. nonshared environment
c. shared genes
d. nonshared genes
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 73
123. Behavior geneticist Robert Plomin has found that shared environment accounts for
_____ of the variation in children’s personality or interests.
a. some
b. most
c. all
d. little
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 73
124. Leila and Alexander are brother and sister. Every Saturday morning, Leila and her
grandmother go to breakfast and then do some errands and shopping together. During that
time, Alexander and his grandfather spend time “male bonding.” They like to play
miniature golf or do yard work. The interactions that each child has with the grandparent
would be known as what type of environmental experience?
a. Shared
b. Parental
c. Nonshared
d. Social
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 73
125. Judith Harris, in the book “The Nurture Assumption,” argues that what matters more
in childrens’ and adolescents’ development is:
a. parents and genetics.
b. peers and genetics.
c. parents.
d. genetics.
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 73
126. In line with the concept of a collaborative gene, Gilbert Gottlieb emphasizes the
_____ view, which states that development is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional
interchange between heredity and the environment.
a. epigenetic
b. biosocial
c. sociogenetic
d. congenital
Answer: a
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 74
127. While Sally’s mother was pregnant with her, she smoked and drank alcohol which
adversely effected Sally’s lung development. After Sally was born, she was placed into
an environment with two parents who smoked. As Sally continued to develop, she was
diagnosed with asthma, a breathing disorder. This scenario reflects the:
a. biomedical model.
b. biosocial model.
c. epigenetic view.
d. genetic theory.
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Application
Page(s): 74
128. _____ is the interaction of a specific measured variation in the DNA and a specific
measured aspect of the environment.
a. Heredity x environment (H x E) interaction
b. Evocative genotype-environment interaction
c. Genetic x environment (G x E) interaction
d. Passive genotype-environment interaction
Answer: c
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 74
129. The field of _____ is the study of gene-environment interaction involving the
individual’s genotype and drug treatment (the environment factor).
a. biogenetics
b. pharmacogenetics
c. pharmacokinetics
d. biotechnology
Answer: b
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 74
130. Regarding the conclusions about heredity and the environment, it can be said that:
a. full genetic expression happens once.
b. genes invariably produce proteins throughout the life span.
c. the relative contributions of heredity and environment are additive.
d. complex behaviors have some genetic loading that gives people a propensity for a
particular developmental trajectory.
Answer: d
Difficulty Level: Medium
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Page(s): 74-75
Identification Questions
131. The theorist who published “On the Origin of Species” in 1859 that outlined his/her
theory of natural selection.
Answer: Charles Darwin
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 54
132. Behavior that promotes an organism’s survival in the natural habitat.
Answer: Adaptive behavior
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 55
133. A psychological perspective that emphasizes the importance of adaptation,
reproduction, and “survival of the fittest” in shaping behavior.
Answer: Evolutionary psychology
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 55
134. A complex molecule, with a double helix shape, that contains genetic information.
Answer: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 58
135. Structures found in the nucleus of the cell that contain DNA. Arranged in pairs, the
human body contains 23 of these structures.
Answer: Chromosomes
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 58
136. Short segments of DNA that are located on the chromosomes. These are considered
to be the basic units of hereditary information.
Answer: Genes
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 58
137. Cell division in the eggs and sperms. A cell duplicates its chromosomes and divides
twice. This leads to the formation of four cells that contain only half of the genetic
material of the parent cell.
Answer: Meiosis
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 59
138. Twins that develop from a single zygote that splits into two genetically identical
replicas.
Answer: Identical twins (monozygotic twins)
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
139. The observable characteristics of an individual’s genetic makeup.
Answer: Phenotype
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
140. A chromosomal abnormality that is characterized by an extra copy of chromosome
21. A person with this disorder typically has a round face, a flattened skull, an extra fold
of skin over the eyelids, a protruding tongue, short limbs, and retardation of motor and
mental abilities.
Answer: Down syndrome
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 62
141. A prenatal test in which a small sample of the placenta is removed and analyzed to
detect genetic defects and chromosomal abnormalities.
Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66
142. A heredity-environment correlation where personal characteristics elicit certain
kinds of responses from others.
Answer: evocative genotype–environment correlation
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 72
143. The behavioral geneticists who studied heredity-environment correlations and
shared / non-shared environmental influences.
Answer: Sandra Scarr and Robert Plomin
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 72-73
144. This theorist wrote the controversial book “The Nurture Assumption” where she
argued that child behavior is determined primarily by genetics and peer influences, and
parents have very little influence on the development of their children.
Answer: Judith Harris
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 73
145. This theorist suggested that development is an ongoing bidirectional interaction
between heredity and the environment.
Answer: Gilbert Gottlieb
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 74
146. A theory of development that states that development is the result of an ongoing,
bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.
Answer: epigenetic view
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 74
Short Answer Questions
147. List four genetic principles.
Answer: The fours genetic principles are: dominant-recessive genes principle, sex-linked
genes (X-linked inheritance), genetic imprinting, and polygenic inheritance.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 60
148. List four sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.
Answer: Klinefelter syndrome, fragile X syndrome, Turner syndrome, and XYY
syndrome are all sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 61
149. List five gene-linked abnormalities.
Answer: Cystic fibrosis, diabetes, hemophilia, Huntington disease, sickle-cell anemia,
spina bifida, Tay-Sachs disease, and phenylketonuria (PKU) are all gene-linked
abnormalities.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 64 (Figure 2.7)
150. Name and describe three prenatal diagnostic tests.
Answer: Prenatal diagnostic tests include:
1) ultrasound sonography where high-frequency sound waves are directed into the
pregnant woman’s abdomen and the echo from the sounds is transformed into a visual
representation of the fetus’s inner structures.
2) fetal MRI which uses a powerful magnet and radio images to generate detailed images
of the body’s organs and structures.
3) chorionic villus sampling (CVS) where a small sample of the placenta is removed to
test for genetic defects and chromosomal abnormalities.
4) amniocentesis in which a sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn by syringe and tested
for chromosomal or metabolic disorders.
5) maternal blood screening that identifies pregnancies that have an elevated risk for birth
defects such as spina bifida and Down syndrome.
6) noninvasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD) which is mainly focused on the isolation and
examination of fetal cells circulating in the mother’s blood and analysis of cell-free fetal
DNA in maternal plasma.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 66-67
151. List three possible causes of infertility in women and in men.
Answer: Lack of ovulation, producing abnormal ova, blocked fallopian tubes, and disease
preventing implantation of the ova in the uterus, are some of the causes of infertility in
women. Sperm lacking motility, low sperm count, and blocked passageways could be
causes of infertility in men.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 67
152. Chapter 1 mentions how John Bowlby illustrated an important application of
ethological theory to human development by stressing that attachment to a caregiver over
the first year of life has important consequences throughout the life span. How would you
connect this ethological concept to the differences in outcomes for adopted and nonadopted children?
Answer: John Bowlby’s contribution to ethological theory is reflected in research
focusing on outcomes for adopted children that indicate that children who are adopted
very early in their lives are more likely to have positive outcomes than children adopted
later in life. In one study, the later adoption occurred, the more problems the adoptees
had. Infant adoptees had the fewest adjustment difficulties; those adopted after they were
10 years of age had the most problems. These studies effectively bear out John Bolby’s
view that emphasizes the importance of attachment over the first year of birth to human
development.
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Synthesis
Page(s): 68-69-70
153. Identify and describe the two common studies used by behavior geneticists to
investigate the influence of heredity on behavior.
Answer: To study the influence of heredity on behavior, behavior geneticists often use
either twins or adoption situations. In the most common twin study, the behavioral
similarity of identical twins (who are genetically identical) is compared with the
behavioral similarity of fraternal twins. In an adoption study, investigators seek to
discover whether the behavior and psychological characteristics of adopted children are
more like those of their adoptive parents, who have provided a home environment, or
more like those of their biological parents, who have contributed their heredity. Another
form of adoption study compares adoptive and biological siblings.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 71-72
154. What are the three ways that heredity and environment are correlated as described
by behavior geneticist Sandra Scarr.
Answer: Behavior geneticist Sandra Scarr described three ways that heredity and
environment are correlated:
1) Passive genotype-environment correlations that occur because biological parents, who
are genetically related to the child, provide a rearing environment for the child.
2) Evocative genotype-environment correlations that occur because a child’s
characteristics elicit certain types of environments.
3) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlations that occur when children
seek out environments that they find compatible and stimulating.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 72-73
155. Define shared and nonshared environmental experiences and give an example of
each.
Answer: Shared environmental experiences are siblings’ common experiences, such as
their parents’ personalities or intellectual orientation, the family’s socioeconomic status,
and the neighborhood in which they live. Nonshared environmental experiences are a
child’s unique experiences, both within the family and outside the family, that are not
shared with a sibling. Different peer groups, different teachers, and different friends are
examples.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Page(s): 73
156. Assume that in the case study of the Jim and Jim twins it is found that their similar
development trajectories were a result of their similar characteristics which caused them
to seek out similar environments compatible and stimulating to them. Which heredityenvironment correlation is reflected in this scenario?
Answer: This would reflect the active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation
that occurs when children seek out environments that they find compatible and
stimulating.
Difficulty Level: Hard
Bloom’s: Synthesis
Page(s): 74
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