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```Sample Exam Papers
NATIONAL UNIVERSITY of SINGAPORE
NANYANG TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
HANOI, 2013
www.hexagon.edu.vn
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
PHYSICS
Time: 9.30am to 11.30am
Duration: 2 hours
1. This examination has TWO (2) sections – A and B, and comprises SEVEN (7) printed pages.
2. Answer all questions in section A.
i. For each question, five suggested answers are given. Choose the most appropriate one and
indicate it on the answer paper provided.
ii. Each question is allotted 2 marks. Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.
iii. You are advised to spend about 45 minutes on this section.
3. Answer any THREE (3) questions from section B.
i.
paper. Write the question number beside each question.
ii. Each question is allotted 20 marks.
4. At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer script. Complete the
information required on the cover paper. The cover paper for this examination is BLUE.
5. Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper, out of the
examination hall.
SECTION A (40 marks)
1.
Which one of the following products may not be expressed in units of energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2.
A stone is thrown from P and follows a parabolic path. The highest point reached is T. The vertical
component of acceleration of the stone
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
3.
the linear momentum is constant but the energy varies
the energy is constant but the linear momentum varies
both energy and linear momentum are constant
neither the linear momentum nor the energy is constant
the speed and the linear velocity are both constant
On braking, 500 kJ of heat were produced when a vehicle of total mass 1600 kg was brought to rest
on a level road. The speed of the vehicle just before the brakes were applied was
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5.
is zero at T
is greatest at T
is greatest at P
is the same at P as at T
decreases at a constant rate
For a particle moving in a horizontal circle with constant angular velocity,
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4.
surface tension x area
force x distance moved
pressure x volume
mass x (speed of light)2
potential difference x current
0.625 ms-1
0.79 ms-1
25 ms-1
62.5 ms-1
625 ms-1
A body of mass m moves at constant angular speed ω in a horizontal circle of radius
work done on the body in one revolution?
A. zero
B. 2π mr
C.
D.
E.
6.
ω2
π mr 3ω 3
mr 2ω 2
mr 2ω 2 / 2
2
The critical angle for an air-glass interface is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the
the
the
the
the
smallest angle of incidence for which light in air can enter glass
largest angle of incidence for which light in air can enter glass
angle at which white light is just dispersed into its constituent colours
largest angle of incidence for which light in glass can enter air
smallest angle of incidence for which light in glass can enter air
2
r . What is the
7.
The energy carried by a wave-train is proportional to the square of the wave amplitude. If two
waves of the same frequency are superposed in phase, the total energy carried is proportional to
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8.
sum of the energies carried by the separate waves
mean value of the energies carried by the separate waves
square of the mean value of the two amplitudes
square of the difference of the two amplitudes
square of the sum of the two amplitudes
Which one of the following characteristics of electromagnetic waves is needed to explain the
spectrum produced when white light falls on a diffraction grating? Electromagnetic waves can
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
9.
the
the
the
the
the
interfere
be linearly polarized
change speed in passing from one material into another
be reflected with little, if any, loss in intensity
be shown to exchange energy with matter in quantised amounts
For the construction of a thermometer, one of the essential requirements is a thermometric
substance which
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
remains liquid over the entire range of temperature to be measured
has a property that varies linearly with temperature
has a property that varies with temperature
obeys Boyle’s law
has a constant expansivity
10. The average kinetic energy of the molecules of an ideal gas in a closed, rigid container is increased
by a factor of 4. What happens to the pressure of the gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It
It
It
It
It
remains the same
increases by a factor
increases by a factor
increases by a factor
increases by a factor
of
of
of
of
2
4
8
16
11. A 2µF capacitor is charged to a potential of 200 V and then isolated. When it is connected in parallel
with a second capacitor which is initially uncharged, the common potential becomes 40V. The
capacitor of the second capacitor is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2µF
4µF
6µF
8µF
16µF
12. The resistance of a semiconductor decreases rapidly with increasing temperature. The main factor
contributing to this effect is the rapid increase, with increasing temperature, of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the
the
the
the
the
speed of the random motion of the free charge carriers
concentration of the free charge carriers
drift velocity of the free charge carriers
frequency of vibration of the atoms of the semiconductor
amplitude of vibration of the atoms of the semiconductor
3
13. A mutual inductor consists of two coils X and Y arranged so that one quarter of the magnetic flux
produced by X links with Y. When X is used as the primary coil and Y as the secondary, the mutual
inductance is M. What is the mutual inductance when Y is used as primary and X as the secondary?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
M/4
M/2
M
2M
4M
14. When an electron moving with constant speed in a vacuum enters a magnetic field in a direction at
right angles to the field, its subsequent path is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a straight line parallel to the field
a parabola in a plane normal to the field
a circle in a plane normal to the field
undeviated
a spiral with the direction of the field as axis
15. Drops X and Y, of the same oil, remained simultaneously stationary in air so long as a vertical
electric field was applied. After the field had been switched off, X fell more quickly than Y. Which
one of the following deductions can be made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
X had a greater charge than Y
Y had a greater charge than X
Both X and Y were positively charged
X lost its charge while Y remained charged
The charges on X and Y were identical in sign and magnitude
16. The wavelength of a 5 MeV γ- ray is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4.95
8.89
8.89
2.48
2.48
x
x
x
x
x
10-38m
10-32m
10-30m
10-13 m
10-10m
[electron charge = -1.6 x 10-19C; Planck constant = 6.6 x 10-34 Js; speed of light = 3.0 x 108 ms-1]
17. A student connects a photocell to a supply and finds that when the cell is exposed to
monochromatic radiation, a current flows only when the potential difference across the cell is less
than 1.6V. What is the maximum energy of the emitted electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1.0 x 10-19 J
2.6 x 10-19 J
4.8 x 10-11J
1.6 J
1.0 x 10+19J
[electronic charge = -1.6 x 10-19C]
4
18. The wave nature of electrons is suggested by experiments on
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
line spectra of atoms
the production of X-rays
the photoelectric effect
electron diffraction by a crystalline material
β-decay of nuclei
19. A naturally occurring isotope of radium,
226
88
Ra has a half-life of 1622 years. Its radioactive decay
may be represented by the equation
226
88
Ra → X + a + γ
where X is a daughter nuclide, a is an alpha-particle and γ is a gamma-ray photon. The atomic
number of X is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
86
88
89
224
227
20. The radioactive decay of a certain nuclide is governed by the following relationship:
dn
= −λn
dt
where λ = 2.4 x 10−8 s −1
What is the half-life of the nuclide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2.9
1.3
1.2
3.4
8.0
x 107s
x 107s
x 108 s
x 108 s
x 108 s
5
SECTION B (60 marks)
1.
(a) State the laws of conservation of linear momentum and energy. [6 marks]
(b) A proton of mass m moving with velocity u makes a head-on, perfectly elastic collision with a
stationary nucleus of mass M. The velocities of the proton and the nucleus after collision are ν
and V respectively.
(i) Write down the equations that summarise the application of the laws of conservation of
linear momentum and energy. [4 marks]
(ii) Show that the fractional loss of kinetic energy ∆E / E of the proton is given by
∆E
4( M / m)
=
E (1 + M / m) 2
[6 marks]
(iii) Assume the nucleus has a mass 4 times that of the proton, calculate the fraction of the
kinetic energy of the proton which is transferred to the nucleus. [4 marks]
2.
(a) State the principle of superposition of waves and use it to account the following observations.
(i) The interference of light produced in Young’s double-slit experiment.
(ii) The diffraction of parallel light with fringe pattern produced by a single slit.
[8 marks]
(b) Explain how the wavelength of monochromatic light is measured by using a diffraction grating
and a spectrometer. [6 marks]
(c) A parallel beam of sodium light is incident normally on a diffraction grating having 400 lines per
o
'
mm. The angle between the two first order spectra on either side of the normal is 27 16 . Find
the wavelength of the light. [6 marks]
3.
(a) Define the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water and describe a method for its
determination. [8 marks]
o
(b) At a temperature of 100 C and a pressure of 1.01 x 10 Pa , 1.00 kg of steam occupies
1.67m3 but the same mass of water occupies only 1.04 x 10-3 m3. The specific latent heat of
5
100o C is 2.26 x 106 J kg-1. For a system consisting of 2.00 kg of water
o
5
changing to steam at 100 C and 1.01 x 10 Pa , find
vaporization of water at
(i) the heat applied to the system,
(ii) the work done by the system, and
6
(iii) the increase in the internal energy of the system.
[12 marks]
4. (a) (i) Describe, with the aid of a labelled diagram, the structure of a single beam cathode-ray
oscilloscope tube.
(ii) What is the function of the linear time-base in an oscilloscope? Sketch a graph showing the
variation of the time-base voltage with time.
[10 marks]
(b) A cathode-ray oscilloscope has its voltage sensitivity (Y-deflection) set at 10Vcm-1 and its timebase (X-deflection) set at 2 ms cm-1. A sinusoidal input is suitably applied to give a steady trace
on the screen. If the trace has a total peak to peak height of 4.0 cm and a horizontal distance
for one complete cycle of 2.0 cm, determine
(i)
the r.m.s voltage, and
(ii)
the frequency of the input signal.
[10 marks]
5. A typical fission reaction is
U + 01n →
235
92
148
57
La +
85
35
Br + neutrons .
(a) Explain the term fission reaction. [5 marks]
(b) What is meant by 235 and 92 in
235
92
U ? [4 marks]
(c) How many neutrons are released in this reaction? What is the importance of these neutrons in
a nuclear reactor? [6 marks]
(d) Calculate the energy released in this reaction.
U = 235.1u ,
[mass of
235
92
mass of
148
57
La =148.0 u ,
mass of
mass of
85
35
1
0
n = 1.009 u
Br = 84.9 u
1 u = 931 MeV ]
[5 marks]
7
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
PHYSICS
Duration
: 2 hours
1.
This examination has TWO (2) sections – A and B, and comprises SEVEN (7)
printed pages.
2.
Attempt all sections.
3.
provided. Each question carries 2 marks. Marks will not be deducted for wrong
4.
paper provided. Begin each question with a fresh sheet of paper.
Write the
question number clearly. Each question carries 20 marks.
5.
A non-programmable scientific calculator may be used.
6.
At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer
script.
Complete the information required on the cover page and tie the papers
together with the string provided.
7.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper,
out of the examination hall.
SECTION A
(40 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section.
1.
A car accelerates uniformly from 10 to 20 ms-1 in a distance of 150m; How
long after that will it reach 40 ms-1 ?
A
B
C
D
E
2.
750N .
450N .
1,350N .
No net force .
1,500N .
1.3c1 .
0.67c1 .
2c1 .
1.7c1 .
0.55c1 .
Speed of sound in air is 340ms-1. A shot is fired and the echo is heard 2 s
after the shot was fired. How far is the reflecting surface?
A
B
C
D
E
5.
.
.
.
.
.
Light travels at different speed through different materials. If it travels at
speed c1 in a medium of refractive index 1.2, what is its speed in a medium
of refractive index 1.6?
A
B
C
D
E
4.
40s
20s
45s
15s
30s
A parachuter of mass 75 kg falls towards the earth at a speed of 25 ms-1.
What is the resultant force acting on the person?
A
B
C
D
E
3.
Each question carries 2 marks.
340m .
680m .
170m .
85m .
34m .
The oscillation of a pendulum is simple harmonic when the amplitude is small
compared to its length. This is because:
A
B
C
D
E
a long pendulum loses less energy .
the restoring force is proportional to displacement at small angles .
friction of the pivot is smaller when the pendulum is long .
a long pendulum is more massive.
it has a higher length to mass ratio.
2
6.
A coil of wire stores energy in the form of
A
B
C
D
E
7.
The angular frequency of a wave is 2,000π and its phase velocity is 320ms-1.
Its period is
A
B
C
D
E
8.
power is lost due to resistance .
magnetic saturation robs power .
inductance does not consume power .
friction in the bearings of the motor.
A and B .
A sinusoidal alternating current is fullwave rectified.
will produce in the same load
A
B
C
D
E
10.
10-3s .
5x10-4s .
10 ms .
100µs .
0.05s .
A motor has both resistance and inductance. A motor rated at 1 hp input
operating at 240V draws 4 A of current because
A
B
C
D
E
9.
charge .
potential difference .
magnetic field .
A and B .
A and C .
the same power .
0.71 times the power .
1.41 times the power .
half the power .
twice the power .
Capacitance is measured in
A
B
C
D
E
Henrys .
Ohms.
Pascal .
Watts .
3
The rectified current
11.
Fluorescent lamps use phosphors to produce visible light from UV light. This
is done by absorbing the UV light and then re-radiating it using a different
wavelength. This is a
A
B
C
D
E
12.
The property of a transparent material that makes it useful as material for a
lens is
A
B
C
D
E
13.
wavelength .
intensity of the beam .
speed of the photon.
polarization .
frequency .
The conservation of linear momentum in a collision does not apply if
A
B
C
D
E
15.
refraction .
diffraction .
polarization .
dispersion .
absorption .
Which of the properties listed below determines the energy of a photon
A
B
C
D
E
14.
one way process .
reversible process.
process that produces continuous spectrum .
process that produces a single wavelength only .
process that is very inefficient .
sound is generated during impact .
the collision is inelastic .
frictional forces are present .
the objects do not collide head-on .
The collision is partially elastic only .
A simple glass lens do not focus the image of an object correctly under white
light because
A
B
C
D
E
the lens absorbs light .
the glass has some colouration due to impurities .
the surface of the lens reflect some light .
a glass prism splits sunlight into different colours .
glass absorbs UV light .
4
16.
When measured with a digital multimeter, the potential difference of a dry
cell is 1.6V. When it was used in a 2 cell flashlight with a lamp current of
0.75A, the lamp was found to be working at 2.4V. This is due to internal
resistance. The internal resistance of a cell is
A
B
C
D
E
17.
Heat is used to change a liquid to its gaseous state at the same temperature
as the liquid. This is because of the property of the liquid called
A
B
C
D
E
18.
reduced .
the same .
increased .
the same at first and then reduces .
the same at first and then increases .
Two weights of mass 10kg are hung at two ends of a rope that is passed
over a frictionless pulley fixed on the ceiling. The tension in the rope is
A
B
C
D
E
20.
heat capacity .
latern heat .
specific heat capacity .
conductivity .
boiling point .
The shadow cast by an object on a wall by the light from a point source of
light at a smaller distance from the object compared to one with the light
source placed further away from the object has a sharpness of edge that is
A
B
C
D
E
19.
0.533Ω .
1.07Ω .
3.20Ω .
1.10Ω .
0.107Ω .
98N .
196N .
49N .
147N .
73.5N .
Two metal plates carrying charge Q is separated by a distance d. The
capacitance of the resultant charged capacitor is then decreased by moving
the plates. The energy stored in the capacitor
A
B
C
D
E
stays the same .
increases .
decreases .
stays the same if the plates are moved parallel to each other .
decreases if the plates are moved parallel to each other .
5
SECTION B
(60 Marks)
Answer not more than THREE (3) questions in this section. Each question carries 20 marks.
1.
A kettle rated at 240V10A is placed on an electronic weighing scale and
turned on. When the liquid is boiling, the kettle is found to be losing weight
at the rate of 10g in 10s .
Calculate
2.
(a)
Power rating of the kettle
(b)
The specific heat of vapourisation of the liquid
(c)
Site one source of error in the determination of the value of (b)
(d)
Suggest how this error may be reduced.
[2 marks]
[8 marks]
[5 marks]
[5 marks]
A toy car of mass 0.50kg works with a wound spring that exerts a force as
shown in the table below. The car was initially at rest. The spring is wound at
the car set in motion on a horizontal surface.
Time (s)
Force (N)
(a)
0.0
0.20
1.0
0.18
2.0
0.15
3.0
0.12
4.0
0.10
5.0
0.08
6.0
0.05
7.0
0.02
8.0
0.00
Plot a graph of force vs. time using the table above. Determine from
the graph the speed of the car 8 s after being released.
[8 marks]
(b)
The car then crashes into a stationary car of mass 1.50kg. and is
stuck to the second car. Calculate the speed of the two
cars
after
collision. Show if the collision is elastic or not.
[12 marks]
6
3.
(a)
(b)
State what is an electric current.
[2 marks]
A car battery can supply current of 1A for 45 hours. Its potential
difference is 12V. Calculate the energy stored in a fully charged
battery
[6 marks]
(c)
A heater rated at 2,000W operating at 250V is used on a supply of
230V. if the resistance of the heater is independent of temperature,
calculate the power absorbed by the heater.
[6 marks]
(d)
You are given a number of 100 Ω resistors. Draw circuits that will form
a total resistance of (i) 50Ω; (ii) 150Ω (iii) 67Ω.
[6 marks]
4.
A grinding wheel has a diameter of 0.12m and spins horizontally at 1,200
revolutions per minute about a vertical axis. A particle of mass 1x10-4kg
sticks to the wheel .
(a)
Calculate the magnitude of the angular velocity, acceleration and force
acting on the particle
[5 marks]
(b)
The radial force that keeps the particle on the wheel is 2.5N .
Calculate the angular velocity at which the particle will leave the wheel.
[5 marks]
(c)
If the wheel exceeds the angular speed in (b), calculate the speed and
direction of motion of the particle just after it leaves the surface of the
wheel.
[10 marks]
5.
A mass is suspended on a spring. When the mass is displaced and then
freed, the amplitude of oscillation is found to be 6mm. The period of
oscillation is 3.2s .
(a)
Caculate the maximum acceleration of the mass.
(b)
Sketch a graph with scales to show acceleration of the mass as a
function of displacement.
[6 marks]
[8 marks]
(c)
Suggest and explain one reason why
simple harmonic motion.
END OF PAPER
7
the mass may not oscillate in
[6 marks]
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
PHYSICS
Duration
: 2 hours
1.
This paper is made up of 50 Multiple-Choice questions and comprises ELEVEN
(11) printed pages.
2.
Do not write on the question paper.
3.
Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.
4.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper or unused answer sheets,
out of the examination hall.
1
Multiple-Choice Questions
Answer all questions in this section.
1.
The mass of an isotope of uranium
238
92
U is 238.05 g mol–1. Its density is 19.1
g cm–3 at room temperature. Which of the following is closest to the number
3
of 238
92 U atoms in 1 cm of this isotope?
A
B
C
D
E
2.
2.53x1021
3.29x1022
4.83x1022
6.02x1023
7.51x1024
An isotope of plutonium
239
94
Pu decays by alpha emission.
Which of the
following is the decay product?
243
A
96 Cm
B
235
94
Pu
C
239
93
Np
D
235
92
U
E
234
90
Th
3.
A compact disc of diameter 120 mm is spinning at a speed of 500 revolutions
per minute. Which of the following is closest to the linear speed of the outer
edge of the disc?
A
0.50 m s–1
B
1.0 m s–1
C
1.6 m s–1
D
3.1 m s–1
E
60 m s–1
4.
A steel wire is stretched and clamped between two fixed points that are
spaced 1.0 m apart. Which of the following is closest to the fundamental
wavelength that can exist on this wire?
A
B
C
D
E
5.
0.25 m
0.50 m
1.0 m
2.0 m
4.0 m
A thin converging lens of focal length 20 cm is used to shape light from a
lamp filament into a parallel beam. Which of the following is closest to the
required distance between the lamp filament and the lens?
A
B
C
D
E
5.0 cm
10 cm
20 cm
40 cm
80 cm
2
6.
A metallic sphere of radius 1.0 cm is charged with 1.0x109 electrons in air.
Which of the following is closest to the electric potential difference between
the surface of this sphere and a point far away? [The electric potential of a
charged metallic sphere varies with distance r from the centre of the sphere
according to V =
A
B
C
D
E
1 q
for r ≥ ro, where ro is the radius of the sphere.]
4 π ⋅ εo r
70 V
–70 V
140 V
–140 V
8.99x1020 V
7.
Which of the following is closest to the wavelength of an electron of energy
1.0 eV?
A
1.2 nm
B
15 nm
C
50 nm
D
350 nm
E
1240 nm
8.
Which of the following is most suitable to measure the temperature of red
hot molten steel?
A
bimetallic strip thermometer
B
thermocouple
C
optical pyrometer
D
mercury-in-glass thermometer
E
silicon diode thermometer
9.
Which of the following is closest to the mean distance between air molecules
at room temperature and pressure (298 K and 101325 Pa)? Assume air is
made of 79% N2 and 21% O2 by moles.
A
0.4 nm
B
4 nm
C
40 nm
D
400 nm
E
4 µm
10.
The linear thermal expansion coefficient of invar is 1.3 x 10–6 K–1. Which of
the following is closest to the change in length of a 10-cm-long invar rod
subjected to a change in temperature of +100ºC?
A
+0.13 µm
B
+1.3 µm
C
+13 µm
D
+130 µm
E
+1.3 mm
3
11.
12.
A typical capacitor in an MP3 player has C = 0.10 µF . If a voltage of 12.0 V is
placed on the capacitor, what is the charge on it?
1.2 µC
120 µC
A
B
C
D
1.2 C
120 C
E
1.2 × 108 C
A long, straight wire of length 1.4 m carries a current of i = 3.5 A .
If a
magnetic field of magnitude B = 1.5 T is directed parallel to the wire, what is
the magnitude of the force on the wire?
A
B
C
D
E
13.
Two point charges are separated by a distance r. If the separation is
reduced by a factor of 3/2, by what factor does the electric potential
between them change?
A
B
C
D
E
14.
3/2
2/3
9/4
4/9
32
The surface of the Sun has a temperature of about 6000 K. What is the
root-mean-square speed of a hydrogen atom in the Sun’s atmosphere?
A
B
C
D
E
15.
7.4 N
6.7 N
5.2 N
3.7 N
0N
6100 m/s
7900 m/s
9300 m/s
8600 m/s
12000 m/s
What is the critical for total internal reflection for light travelling between
diamond (n = 2.42) and water (n = 1.33)?
A
24.4o
B
33.3o
C
36.6o
D
48.8o
E
90.0o
4
16.
2
o
A rectangular gold plate has an area of 0.40 m at 15 C . If it is heated until
−3
2
its area has increased by 2.5 × 10 m , what is the final temperature of the
−6
−1
plate? For gold, the coefficient of expansion is 14 × 10 K .
A
115o C
B
145o C
C
175o C
D
205o C
E
235o C
o
17.
A pot of very cold water (0 C) is placed on a stove with the burner adjusted
for maximum heat. It is found that the water just begins to boil after 3.0
min. How much longer will it take the water to completely boil away?
A
1.6 min
B
3.6 min
C
16 min
D
18 min
E
19 min
18.
A proton with v = 200 m s is moving through a region in which the magnetic
−17
field is B = 2.5 T . If the magnitude of the force on the proton is 6.4 × 10 N ,
r
what angle does the proton’s velocity make with B ?
19.
A
23o
B
35o
C
46o
D
53o
E
80o
The work function for a metal is 5.0 eV. What is the maximum photon
wavelength that can just eject an electron from the metal?
A
B
C
D
E
20.
750
500
250
125
100
nm
nm
nm
nm
nm
The number of atoms in your body is closest to
A
1×1036
B
2 ×1032
C
3 × 1032
D
4 ×10 28
E
5 ×1024
5
T = 2π
21.
22.
The period of a physical pendulum can be calculated by
quantity d has the unit of m . What is the unit of I ?
A
kg −2 ⋅ m 2
B
kg ⋅ s 2
C
m 2 ⋅ s −2
D
m −2 ⋅ s 2
E
kg ⋅ m 2
Balancing the nuclear equation
A
B
C
D
E
23.
X=
236
90
X=
240
90
X=
234
92
U
X=
240
92
U
X=
236
94
Pu
238
94
I
mgd . The
Pu → X + α
Th
Th
A particle is moving along a straight line. The position of the particle as a
2
function of time is x (t ) = 6 + 8t + 10t . What is the average speed of the particle
between t = 1 and t = 2 ?
A
8
B
18
C
28
D
38
E
48
24.
25.
A soccer ball with mass 0.45 kg is initially moving with speed 2.00 m/s. A
soccer player kicks the ball, exerting a constant force of magnitude 30.0 N in
the same direction as the ball’s motion. Over what distance must the
player’s foot be in contact with the ball to increase the ball’s speed to 4.00
m/s?
A
0.06 m
B
0.09 m
C
0.12 m
D
0.15 m
E
None of the above
A laboratory centrifuge makes 2000 rpm (rev/min) and produces an
acceleration of 6.00g at its outer end. What is the acceleration at a point
halfway out to the end?
A
1.50g
B
3.00g
C
6.00g
D
12.00g
E
24.00g
6
26.
A student tries to raise a chain consisting of three identical links. Each link
has a mass of 200 g. The three-piece chain is connected to a light string and
then suspended vertically, with the student holding the upper end of the
string and pulling upward. Because of the student’s pull, an upward force of
15.0 N is applied to the chain by the string. Find the force exerted by the top
A
3.0 N
B
6.0 N
C
8.0 N
D
10.0 N
E
None of the above
27.
What is the percent difference between your apparent weight in Singapore,
near the sea level, and at the top of Mount K2, which is 8611 m above sea
level?
A
0%
B
0.07%
C
0.13%
D
0.27%
E
None of the above
28.
A student originally charges a fixed capacitor to have a potential energy of 1
J. If the student wishes to give the capacitor a potential energy of 4 J, then
the student should
A
B
C
D
E
quadruple the potential difference across the capacitor but leave the
charge unchanged.
double the potential difference across the capacitor but leave the
charge unchanged.
double both the potential difference across the capacitor and the
charge.
leave the potential difference across the capacitor unchanged while
doubling the charge.
leave the potential difference across the capacitor unchanged while
−8
o
29.
The resistivity of gold is 2.44 × 10 Ω ⋅ m at a temperature of 20.0 C . A gold
wire, 1.00 mm in diameter and 37.0 cm long, carries a current of 810 mA.
The power dissipated in the wire is closest to
A
1.9 mW
B
3.3 mW
C
4.7 mW
D
6.1 mW
E
7.5 mW
30.
What is the root-mean-square current value for an alternating current with
an amplitude of 10 A?
A
3.1 A
B
7.1 A
C
10 A
D
24 A
E
28 A
7
31.
A standing wave is set up in a 200 cm string fixed at both ends? The string
vibrates in 5 distinct segments when driven by a 120 Hz source. What is the
wave speed?
A
B
C
D
E
32.
33.
34.
96 m/s
120 m/s
160 m/s
240 m/s
480 m/s
A 18 mm wide diffraction grating has rulings of 740 lines per mm. Light is
incident normally on the grating. Monochromatic light of 555 nm wavelength
is used. The largest angle from the normal at which an intensity maximum
is formed is closest to
A
47o
B
49o
C
51o
D
53o
E
55o
A laser pulse of duration 25 ms has a total energy of 2.0 J. If the
wavelength of this radiation is 481 nm, how many photons are emitted in
one pulse?
A
4.8 × 1018
B
5.8 × 1019
C
1.2 × 10 20
D
1.9 × 1017
E
3.8 × 1017
An electron’s de Broglie wavelength is 5.0 µm . What is its speed?
A
1.5 × 10 2 m/s
B
8.0 × 10 2 m/s
C
1.2 × 105 m/s
D
4.0 × 106 m/s
E
4.0 × 107 m/s
238
35.
U
206
Pb
The decay chain that leads from 92
to 82
consists a series of alpha
decays and beta decays. How many beta particles are emitted?
A
B
C
D
E
4
5
6
7
8
8
36.
−3 −1
The decay constant of a radioactive nuclide is 2.1 × 10 s . The half-life of the
nuclide, in minutes, is closest to
A
B
C
D
E
3.1
4.3
5.5
6.7
8.0
37.
In general, if a vector A is to be subtracted from a vector B the magnitude of
the resultant when A ≥ B
A
must equal A + B.
B
must equal A – B.
C
may be between A and A + B.
D
may be between B – A and B + A.
E
may be between A – B and A + B.
38.
A train starts from rest and accelerates uniformly, until it has traveled 6.10
km and acquired a velocity of 23.0 m/s. The train then moves at a constant
velocity of 23.0 m/s for 450 s. The train then slows down uniformly at
0.0650 m/s2, until it is brought to a halt. The acceleration during the first
6.10 km of travel, is closest to
39.
40.
A
0.043 m s 2
B
0.049 m s 2
C
0.054 m s 2
D
0.060 m s 2
E
0.065 m s 2
An object is moving in a circle at constant speed v. The magnitude of the
rate of change of momentum of the object
A
3
is proportional to v .
B
C
D
E
is
is
is
is
2
proportional to v .
proportional to v.
a nonzero constant independent of v.
zero.
An object undergoing simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 2.3 m. If
the maximum velocity of the object is 14 m/s, what is the object’s angular
frequency?
A
B
C
D
E
9
41.
A car accelerates uniformly from 10 to 20 ms-1 in a distance of 150m; How
long after that will it reach 40 ms-1 ?
A
B
C
D
E
42.
1.3c1 .
0.67c1 .
2c1 .
1.7c1 .
0.55c1 .
Speed of sound in air is 340ms-1. A shot is fired and the echo is heard 2 s
after the shot was fired. How far is the reflecting surface?
A
B
C
D
E
45.
750N .
450N .
1,350N .
No net force .
1,500N .
Light travels at different speed through different materials. If it travels at
speed c1 in a medium of refractive index 1.2, what is its speed in a medium
of refractive index 1.6?
A
B
C
D
E
44.
.
.
.
.
.
A parachuter of mass 75 kg falls towards the earth at a speed of 25 ms-1.
What is the resultant force acting on the person?
A
B
C
D
E
43.
40s
20s
45s
15s
30s
340m .
680m .
170m .
85m .
34m .
The oscillation of a pendulum is simple harmonic when the amplitude is small
compared to its length. This is because:
A
B
C
D
E
a long pendulum loses less energy .
the restoring force is proportional to displacement at small angles .
friction of the pivot is smaller when the pendulum is long .
a long pendulum is more massive.
it has a higher length to mass ratio.
10
46.
A coil of wire stores energy in the form of
A
B
C
D
E
47.
The angular frequency of a wave is 2,000π and its phase velocity is 320ms-1.
Its period is
A
B
C
D
E
48.
power is lost due to resistance .
magnetic saturation robs power .
inductance does not consume power .
friction in the bearings of the motor.
A and B .
A sinusoidal alternating current is fullwave rectified.
will produce in the same load
A
B
C
D
E
50.
10-3s .
5x10-4s .
10 ms .
100µs .
0.05s .
A motor has both resistance and inductance. A motor rated at 1 hp input
operating at 240V draws 4 A of current because
A
B
C
D
E
49.
charge .
potential difference .
magnetic field .
A and B .
A and C .
the same power .
0.71 times the power .
1.41 times the power .
half the power .
twice the power .
Capacitance is measured in
A
B
C
D
E
Henrys .
Ohms.
Pascal .
Watts .
END OF PAPER
11
The rectified current
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
PHYSICS
Duration
: 2 hours
1.
This paper is made up of 50 Multiple-Choice questions and comprises ELEVEN
(11) printed pages.
2.
Do not write on the question paper.
3.
Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.
4.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper or unused answer sheets,
out of the examination hall.
1
Multiple-Choice Questions
Answer all questions in this section.
1.
A car accelerates uniformly from 10 to 20 ms-1 in a distance of 150m; How
long after that will it reach 40 ms-1 ?
A
B
C
D
E
2.
1.3c1 .
0.67c1 .
2c1 .
1.7c1 .
0.55c1 .
Speed of sound in air is 340ms-1. A shot is fired and the echo is heard 2 s
after the shot was fired. How far is the reflecting surface?
A
B
C
D
E
5.
750N .
450N .
1,350N .
No net force .
1,500N .
Light travels at different speed through different materials. If it travels at
speed c1 in a medium of refractive index 1.2, what is its speed in a medium
of refractive index 1.6?
A
B
C
D
E
4.
.
.
.
.
.
A parachuter of mass 75 kg falls towards the earth at a speed of 25 ms-1.
What is the resultant force acting on the person?
A
B
C
D
E
3.
40s
20s
45s
15s
30s
340m .
680m .
170m .
85m .
34m .
The oscillation of a pendulum is simple harmonic when the amplitude is small
compared to its length. This is because:
A
B
C
D
E
a long pendulum loses less energy .
the restoring force is proportional to displacement at small angles .
friction of the pivot is smaller when the pendulum is long .
a long pendulum is more massive.
it has a higher length to mass ratio.
2
6.
A coil of wire stores energy in the form of
A
B
C
D
E
7.
The angular frequency of a wave is 2,000π and its phase velocity is 320ms-1.
Its period is
A
B
C
D
E
8.
power is lost due to resistance .
magnetic saturation robs power .
inductance does not consume power .
friction in the bearings of the motor.
A and B .
A sinusoidal alternating current is fullwave rectified.
will produce in the same load
A
B
C
D
E
10.
10-3s .
5x10-4s .
10 ms .
100µs .
0.05s .
A motor has both resistance and inductance. A motor rated at 1 hp input
operating at 240V draws 4 A of current because
A
B
C
D
E
9.
charge .
potential difference .
magnetic field .
A and B .
A and C .
the same power .
0.71 times the power .
1.41 times the power .
half the power .
twice the power .
Capacitance is measured in
A
B
C
D
E
Henrys .
Ohms.
Pascal .
Watts .
3
The rectified current
11.
Fluorescent lamps use phosphors to produce visible light from UV light. This
is done by absorbing the UV light and then re-radiating it using a different
wavelength. This is a
A
B
C
D
E
12.
The property of a transparent material that makes it useful as material for a
lens is
A
B
C
D
E
13.
wavelength .
intensity of the beam .
speed of the photon.
polarization .
frequency .
The conservation of linear momentum in a collision does not apply if
A
B
C
D
E
15.
refraction .
diffraction .
polarization .
dispersion .
absorption .
Which of the properties listed below determines the energy of a photon
A
B
C
D
E
14.
one way process .
reversible process.
process that produces continuous spectrum .
process that produces a single wavelength only .
process that is very inefficient .
sound is generated during impact .
the collision is inelastic .
frictional forces are present .
the objects do not collide head-on .
The collision is partially elastic only .
A simple glass lens do not focus the image of an object correctly under white
light because
A
B
C
D
E
the lens absorbs light .
the glass has some colouration due to impurities .
the surface of the lens reflect some light .
a glass prism splits sunlight into different colours .
glass absorbs UV light .
4
16.
When measured with a digital multimeter, the potential difference of a dry
cell is 1.6V. When it was used in a 2 cell flashlight with a lamp current of
0.75A, the lamp was found to be working at 2.4V. This is due to internal
resistance. The internal resistance of a cell is
A
B
C
D
E
17.
Heat is used to change a liquid to its gaseous state at the same temperature
as the liquid. This is because of the property of the liquid called
A
B
C
D
E
18.
reduced .
the same .
increased .
the same at first and then reduces .
the same at first and then increases .
Two weights of mass 10kg are hung at two ends of a rope that is passed
over a frictionless pulley fixed on the ceiling. The tension in the rope is
A
B
C
D
E
20.
heat capacity .
latern heat .
specific heat capacity .
conductivity .
boiling point .
The shadow cast by an object on a wall by the light from a point source of
light at a smaller distance from the object compared to one with the light
source placed further away from the object has a sharpness of edge that is
A
B
C
D
E
19.
0.533Ω .
1.07Ω .
3.20Ω .
1.10Ω .
0.107Ω .
98N .
196N .
49N .
147N .
73.5N .
Two metal plates carrying charge Q is separated by a distance d. The
capacitance of the resultant charged capacitor is then decreased by moving
the plates. The energy stored in the capacitor
A
B
C
D
E
stays the same .
increases .
decreases .
stays the same if the plates are moved parallel to each other .
decreases if the plates are moved parallel to each other .
5
21.
The velocity of a car which is decelerating uniformly changes from 30ms-1 to
15ms-1 in 75m. After what further distance will it come to rest?
A
25m
B
37.5m
C
50m
D
75m
E
100m
22.
Which one of the following pairs of forces is not valid example of action and
reaction to which Newton’s third Law of Motion applies?
A
the centripetal force holding a satellite in orbit round the Earth and
the weight of the satellite
B
the forces of repulsion experienced by each other of two parallel wires
carrying currents in opposite direction
C
the forces of attraction felt by each of two gas molecules passing near
to each other
D
the forces of attraction between an electron and a proton in a
hydrogen atom
E
the forces of repulsion between an atom in the surface of a table and
an atom in the surface of a book resting on the table.
23.
A helicopter of mass 3.0x103kg rises vertically with a constant speed of
25ms-1. Taking the acceleration of free fall as 10ms-1, what resultant force
acts on the helicopter?
A
Zero
B
3.0x104N downwards
C
4.5x104N upwards
D
7.5x104N upwards
E
10.5x104 upwards
24.
Which one of the following is not measured in units of energy?
A
couple x angle turned through
B
moment of inertia x (angular velocity)2
C
force x distance
D
impulse x time
E
mass x acceleration x distance
25.
A car of mass m moving at a constant speed ν passes over a humpback
bridge of radius of curvature r. Given that the car remains in contact with
the road, what is the net force R exerted by the car on the road when it is at
the top of the bridge?
A
R = mg + mv 2 / r
B
C
D
R = mν 2 / r
R = mg − mν 2 / r
R = mg
E
R = mν 2 / r − mg
6
26.
Monochromatic light of wavelength λ1 traveling in a medium of n1 enters a
denser medium of refractive index n2. The wavelength in the second medium
is
A
λ 1 ( n1 / n 2 )
B
C
D
E
λ (n / n )
λ
λ (n − n ) / n
λ (n − n ) / n
1
2
1
1
1
1
2
2
1
1
1
2
27.
A sound wave of frequency 400Hz is traveling in air at a speed of 320ms-1.
What is the difference in phase between two points on the wave 0.2m apart
in the direction of travel?
A
B
C
D
E
28.
An opaque object 10cm wide casts a shadow when placed in a beam of light
but has little effect on a beam of sound emitted by a small source of
frequency 500 Hz. This is because
A
sound is a pressure wave whereas light is an electromagnetic wave
B
sound travels much more slowly than light
C
sound waves are longitudinal whereas light waves are transverse.
D
sound waves have a much longer wavelength than light waves
E
the power per unit area in a beam of sound is much lower than that in
a beam of light
29.
A solid X is in thermal equilibrium with a solid Y, which is at the same
temperature as a third solid Z. The three bodies are of different materials
and masses. Which one of the following statements is certainly correct?
A
X and Y have the same heat capacity
B
Y and Z have the same internal energy
C
There is no net transfer of energy if X is placed in thermal contact with
Z
D
It is not necessary that Y should be in thermal equilibrium with Z
E
It is not necessary that X should be at the same temperature as Y
30.
A fixed mass of gas at constant pressure occupies a volume V. The gas
undergoes a rise in temperature so that the root mean square velocity of its
molecules is doubled. The new volume will be
A
B
C
D
E
V /2
V/ 2
V 2
2V
4V
7
31. The densities of water and steam are 1.0x103kgm-3 and 6.1x10-1kgm-3
respectively. What is the ratio
average separation of steam molecules/average separation of water molecules?
A
B
C
D
E
32.
When electricity conduction is compared with heat conduction, the electrical
analogue of rate of flow of heat is
A
B
C
D
E
33.
the
the
the
the
the
speed of the random motion of the free charge carriers
concentration of the free charge carriers
drift velocity of the free charge carriers
frequency of vibration of the atoms of the semiconductor
amplitude of vibration of the atoms of the semiconductor
An alternating potential difference is connected across a pure resistor and
the frequency of the supply is varied keeping the r.m.s voltage constant. The
mean rate of production of heat in the resistor is
A
B
C
D
E
35.
drift velocity of the charge carriers
power dissipated
electrical conductivity
electric current
The resistance of a semiconductor decreases rapidly with increasing
temperature. The main factor contributing to this effect is the rapid increase,
with increasing temperature of
A
B
C
D
E
34.
12
40
250
1600
61000
proportional to (frequency)2
proportional to frequency
proportional to (frequency)1/2
inversely proportional to frequency
independent of frequency
Double-ionized oxygen atoms (O2-) and singly-ionized lithium atoms (Li+) are
traveling with the same speed, perpendicular to a magnetic field which
causes them to move in circular orbits. The relative atomic masses of oxygen
and lithium are 16 and 7 respectively. What is the ratio radius of O2orbit/radius of Li+ orbit?
A
B
C
D
E
16/7
8/7
7/8
7/16
7/32
8
36.
Photon is the name given to
A
an electron emitted from a metal surface by the action of light
B
a unit of energy
C
a positive charged atomic particle
D
an electron emitted from a metal surface by the action of heat
E
37.
Which one of the following statements referring to photoelectric emission is
always true?
A
No emission of electrons occurs for very low intensity illumination
B
For a given metal there is a minimum frequency of radiation below
which no emission occurs.
C
The velocity of the emitted electrons is proportional to the intensity of
D
The number of electrons emitted per second is independent of the
E
The number of electrons emitted per second is proportional to the
38.
The intensity of a beam of monochromatic light is doubled. Which one of the
following represents the corresponding change, if any, in the momentum of
A
increased fourfold
B
doubled
C
the same
D
halved
E
reduced fourfold
39.
Transition between three energy levels in a particular atom gives rise to
three spectral lines of wavelengths, in increasing magnitudes, λ1, λ2 and λ3.
Which one of the following equations correctly relates λ1, λ2 and λ3?
A
λ1 = λ 2 − λ 3
B
λ1 = λ 3 − λ 2
C
D
E
40.
When
1
λ
=
1
1
λ
=
1
1
λ
=
1
1
λ
2
1
λ
−
3
1
λ
+
2
−
1
λ
3
1
λ
2
1
λ
3
238
92
U is bombarded with slow neutrons, it is transformed, absorbing a
single neutron and subsequently emitting two β − particles. The resulting
nuclide is
240
A
93 Np
B
240
91
Pa
C
239
94
Pu
D
239
90
E
233
88
Th
Ra
9
41.
The mass of an isotope of uranium
238
92
U is 238.05 g mol–1. Its density is 19.1
g cm–3 at room temperature. Which of the following is closest to the number
3
of 238
92 U atoms in 1 cm of this isotope?
A
B
C
D
E
42.
2.53x1021
3.29x1022
4.83x1022
6.02x1023
7.51x1024
An isotope of plutonium
239
94
Pu decays by alpha emission.
Which of the
following is the decay product?
243
A
96 Cm
B
235
94
Pu
C
239
93
Np
D
235
92
U
E
234
90
Th
43.
A compact disc of diameter 120 mm is spinning at a speed of 500 revolutions
per minute. Which of the following is closest to the linear speed of the outer
edge of the disc?
A
0.50 m s–1
B
1.0 m s–1
C
1.6 m s–1
D
3.1 m s–1
E
60 m s–1
44.
A steel wire is stretched and clamped between two fixed points that are
spaced 1.0 m apart. Which of the following is closest to the fundamental
wavelength that can exist on this wire?
A
B
C
D
E
45.
0.25 m
0.50 m
1.0 m
2.0 m
4.0 m
A thin converging lens of focal length 20 cm is used to shape light from a
lamp filament into a parallel beam. Which of the following is closest to the
required distance between the lamp filament and the lens?
A
B
C
D
E
5.0 cm
10 cm
20 cm
40 cm
80 cm
10
46.
A metallic sphere of radius 1.0 cm is charged with 1.0x109 electrons in air.
Which of the following is closest to the electric potential difference between
the surface of this sphere and a point far away? [The electric potential of a
charged metallic sphere varies with distance r from the centre of the sphere
according to V =
A
B
C
D
E
1 q
for r ≥ ro, where ro is the radius of the sphere.]
4 π ⋅ εo r
70 V
–70 V
140 V
–140 V
8.99x1020 V
47.
Which of the following is closest to the wavelength of an electron of energy
1.0 eV?
A
1.2 nm
B
15 nm
C
50 nm
D
350 nm
E
1240 nm
48.
Which of the following is most suitable to measure the temperature of red
hot molten steel?
A
bimetallic strip thermometer
B
thermocouple
C
optical pyrometer
D
mercury-in-glass thermometer
E
silicon diode thermometer
49.
Which of the following is closest to the mean distance between air molecules
at room temperature and pressure (298 K and 101325 Pa)? Assume air is
made of 79% N2 and 21% O2 by moles.
A
0.4 nm
B
4 nm
C
40 nm
D
400 nm
E
4 µm
50.
The linear thermal expansion coefficient of invar is 1.3 x 10–6 K–1. Which of
the following is closest to the change in length of a 10-cm-long invar rod
subjected to a change in temperature of +100ºC?
A
+0.13 µm
B
+1.3 µm
C
+13 µm
D
+130 µm
E
+1.3 mm
END OF PAPER
11
NANYANG TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
SINGAPORE
NANYANG TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
SINGAPORE
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
PHYSICS (SAMPLE)
Time Allowed: 2 hours
Date: _______________________________ Exam Centre: ____________________
Name: _______________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS
PL
E
Passport /ID/Application Number: ______________________ Seat No.: __________
1. This question and answer booklet contains TWENTY (20) questions.
M
3. You are required to show your working clearly in the space provided after each
question.
SA
4. Indicate your final answer to each question by circling one of the choices provided
(a, b, c or d).
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. This is a CLOSED-BOOKED examination.
7. All your solutions should be written in this booklet within the space provided after
each question.
For examiners:
Questions
Marks
Total
(100)
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
SA
E
M
PL
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS ( ‘A’ level equivalent)
Duration
: 2 hours
1.
This examination has TWO (2) sections – A and B, and comprises THIRTEEN
(13) printed pages.
2.
Attempt all sections.
3.
provided. Each question carries 2 marks. Marks will not be deducted for wrong
4.
Answer FOUR (4) questions from section B with not more than THREE (3) from
question with a fresh sheet of paper. Write the question number clearly. Each
question carries 15 marks.
5.
A non-programmable scientific calculator may be used.
However, candidates
should lay out systematically the various steps in the calculation.
6.
At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer
script. Complete the information required on the cover page and tie the papers
together with the string provided.
7.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper,
out of the examination hall.
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
SAMPLE
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Time: 9.30am to 12.30pm
Duration: 3 hours
1. This examination has TWO (2) parts – A and B, and comprises FIVE (5) printed pages.
2. Do both parts.
3. Read the instructions at the beginning of each part.
5. At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer script.
Complete the information required on the cover paper. The cover paper for this
examination is YELLOW.
6. Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper, out of
the examination hall.
Part A (50 marks)
Write a 350 word essay on one of the following topics to an educated reader with no
specialist knowledge. You should spend about 90 minutes on this task. You should use your
own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples and
relevant evidence.
1. Man is a curious animal. Since time immemorial, he has not ceased to discover and to
invent. Some discoveries and inventions have made unforgettable marks in the lives of
human beings, but some have not. Think of such a discovery or invention that was
made over the last 50 years; explain how this discovery or invention has added
2. Modern women in many developed and developing countries have had the
opportunities to receive an education. With this education, numerous women are
holding jobs outside their homes and are contributing significantly to their societies. To
help these women work effectively without being bogged down by child rearing, do you
agree that the government should build child-care centres and subsidise child-care
3. It is common knowledge that players of certain sports like soccer, tennis, basketball
and golf attract a large following of supporters. These supporters, from all walks of life,
are willing to pay a hefty sum and make an effort to go watch their favourite
sportsperson or team play in matches. Why do you think they do this? Support your
answer with specific reasons and examples.
4. There is a Chinese saying that goes like this: “Learning comes not from reading
thousands of books but from walking thousands of miles.” Compare and contrast
learning that is gained from experience and learning that is gained from books. In your
opinion, which source is more important? Explain why using concrete evidence?
2
Part B (50 marks)
You Lose A Wrinkle Whenever You Learn
1
2
3
4
5
At 72, Ms Irene Ison cuts a deceptively diminutive, slightly bent figure. However,
up close, her mind is sprightly, her wit caustic and her sense of humour wicked.
Instead of enjoying her old age, the British grandmother has just finished a master’s
course in photography and is hoping to do a doctorate after that. She wants to do a
thesis on creativity and eccentricity in old age.
6
7
8
9
So far, most of the universities she has approached have rebuffed her as a doctoral
candidate because she will be pushing 80 when - and if – she finishes it. But the
tough-talking woman is not easily discouraged; she is bent on pursuing the PhD
programme.
10 “This will not stop me, they can't stop me,” she declares. “My son says when I die
11 he will have to turn my gravestone sideways to get all my degrees in.”
12
13
14
15
16
Last week, she was invited here to take part in a lifelong learning forum at the
Singapore Learning Festival, which was organised by the Ministry of Manpower
and Reed Exhibitions. It was her first time in Asia; her first long-haul flight and her
first overseas speaking engagement. Her ankles were swollen but her spirits were
high.
17
18
19
20
quest to master new areas, she quips: “Learning is the fertiliser which makes your
cells grow. It makes you younger. Forget all those beauty shops and creams. Every
time you learn something, you lose a wrinkle.”
21 Laughter erupts at her parting shot: “By the time I finish learning, I'm going to be
22 younger than you lot.”
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
The hardest part in her learning experience, she says, was making that first journey
to the community college for her 0-levels at age 42. It was plagued by self-doubt
and fear. After that, it became easier and she educated herself “one bite at a time”.
After finishing her 0-levels, she returned to full-time work to put her youngest
daughter through university before embarking on her A-levels at 52. She saved up
for several years before she enrolled at Warwick University to read literary and
cultural studies at 62.
30 At the close of the first semester, struggling with the bias and workload, she wanted
31 to quit, but she changed her mind when she was nominated for and won the
32 outstanding Adult Learners Award for Britain's Central Area in 1992.
33 While at Warwick, a play she wrote about acid-tongue American writer, Dorothy
34 Parker, picked up a £1,000 award, was produced in London and went on tour
35 around Britain.
36
37
38
39
40
In 1995, armed with a second upper-honours degree, she gave her mind a break.
However, after her son bought her a Minolta camera to tinker with, she decided to
pursue her lifelong love affair with photography formally at Tile Hill College in
Coventry. “My time at Warwick was very positive and supportive; so I was totally
unprepared for the treatment I received there,” she recalls.
3
41 From day one, she suffered verbal abuse from her delinquent 16-year-old
42 classmates. Because of her habit of taking her arthritic feet out of her shoes during
43 lectures, they called her “smelly old cow” and stomped on her pictures.
44 “There was little point in telling the tutor. He encouraged it and barred me from his
45 lectures. A student was stationed at the door to keep me out,” she relates.
46
47
48
49
50
51
So she went home in a huff and complained to the administering body, which kindly
sent her the teaching material for her courses and an external invigilator for her
examinations. Two years later, she scored five distinctions, adding with a curl of her
lip that “the rest of the class got two distinctions between them”. She progressed on
to diplomas in illustration, community teaching and video, and recently finished her
master's degree in photography at De-Montford University in Leicester.
52
53
54
55
56
Although she has exceeded her own academic expectations, she says the road to
adult learning is still full of obstacles in a greying Britain. Student grants are
reserved for the young and getting a study loan is nearly impossible beyond one's
mid-50s because “they think you're going to die before you pay it back”. But all
these road obstructions, she says, only prodded her to press on.
57 “Education is the saviour of old age. As long as you keep learning, you keep living.
58 You realise there are things you didn't know. You're thinking of tomorrow, not
59 yesterday.”
60 She lives alone in her Coventry cottage with a 17-year old cat, Harry. She reads
61 voraciously, answers fan mail from other mature students, and lectures at the
62 community library.
63 At 72, she says she is much too old for tears or regrets.
64 “I have room only for laughter and learning in my life. So long as my children
65 remember to put a book in my coffin, I shall be all right,” she says, then hastily
66 adds: “And, of course, a brochure of any likely courses there are in the hereafter.”
Adapted from an article of the same title by Susan Long,
The Straits Times, 15th Nov 2002.
4
Answer all of the following questions. Use your own words as much as you can for mere
copying from the text will be penalised. Do not copy the question on your answer paper.
Write the number of the question clearly on the left margin. Begin each answer on a
fresh line. Marks for each question are indicated in brackets.
1. Explain why the writer uses “deceptively” in line 1 to describe Ms Ison’s
appearance? (3 marks)
2. Why did Ms Ison’s son say that he has to turn his mother’s “gravestone sideways to get
all the degrees in” when his mother dies (lines 10 and 11)? (3 marks)
3. What makes the writer use the phrase, “spirits were high”, to describe Ms Ison? (3
marks)
4. Why does Ms Ison encourage people to forget all the beauty shops and creams (line
19)? (3 marks)
5. What do you think are the factors that helped Ms Ison win the outstanding Adult
Learners Award for Britain’s Central Area in 1992 (lines 31 and 32)? (3 marks)
6. What went on tour around Britain, and why did it go on tour (lines 34 and 35)? (4
marks)
7. What does each of the following words refer to
(4 marks)
a. master’s (line 3)
b. master (line 18)
c. it (line 44)
d. they (line 55)
8. Explain the meaning of each of the following words or phrases as it is used in the
passage. (7 marks)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
eccentricity in old age (line 5)
rebuffed (line 6)
parting shot (line 21)
verbal abuse (line 41)
a greying Britain (line 53)
reads voraciously (lines 60 and 61)
hereafter (line 66)
9. Describe the difficulties that Ms Irene Ison faced in her pursuit of education, and
how she overcame them? Using only material from the passage, explain your answer
in 120 words. The answer should be in an organised and continuous form. (20 marks)
5
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Duration
: 2 ½ hours
1.
This examination has TWO (2) sections – A and B, and comprises FIVE (5)
printed pages.
2.
Attempt all sections.
3.
Section A comprises 60 Multiple Choice questions and you are given 50 minutes
optical mark sheet provided.
4.
Section B comprises 2 comprehension passages and an item of essay. You are
given 100 minutes to complete this section. Please use a ball-point pen to write
5.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper, out of the examination hall.
SECTION A – Multiple Choice Questions (Time given : 50 minutes)
This Section comprises 60 Multiple Choice questions that will test you on your ability to
understand and use English in the following areas:
A. Grammar
B. Vocabulary
C. Grammar Cloze
D. Text Coherence
(The following are examples of Grammar and Vocabulary questions. The correct
answer to each of the questions is underlined.)
1
Choose the MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE to the following questions:
1.1
They need to achieve ____________ weight reduction of at least 40 per cent
compared to steel materials in order to be effective.
A. a
B. an
C. the
1.2
Pain is an unpleasant experience that compels changes in physical activity and this
____________ to _____________ in everyday behavior of the affected person,
reported a research team at the Department of Physiology.
A. may led // changes
C. may led // change
1.3
The equipment has deteriorated after years of poor ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
conservation
maintenance
restoration
refurbishment
2.
Choose the option that is NOT AN APPROPRIATE RESPONSE to the following
questions:
2.1
There have been intense protests against the development of ____ in this region.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.2
He did
A.
B.
C.
D.
nuclear reactor
nuclear reactors
a nuclear reactor
the nuclear reactor
not give any ____ to my questions despite many written reminders.
response
reaction
2
(The following is an example of a Text Coherence question)
Read the following sentences and choose the order of sentences that is most
appropriate to make a coherent paragraph.
I.
These figures play a significant role in framing current international policy
debates about the future direction of global agriculture.
II. In the last couple of years, scientists, politicians and agricultural industry
representatives have been arguing that there is a need to increase
global food production by 50% by the year 2030, and for food
production to double by 2050 to meet future demand.
III. In particular, the statistics have dominated the policy and media
discussions about food and farming and are often used to justify the
need for more intensive agricultural practices including the need for
further expansion of GM crops.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I, II, III
II, I, III
III, II, I
II, III, I
SECTION B – Comprehension & Essay (Time given : 100 minutes)
This Section focuses on writing, and it tests your ability to understand two passages and
then use the relevant ideas gathered from the passages to support your opinions/views
in an essay.
(The following is an example of the reading passages and essay prompt.)
Passage 1
Adapted from Research on the Effects of Media Violence
Media Awareness Network. Retrieved on October 7, 1010 from http://www.media
awareness.ca/english/issues/violence/effects_media_violence.cfm
Whether or not exposure to media violence causes increased levels of aggression and
violence in young people is the perennial question of media effects research. Some
experts, like University of Michigan Professor L. Rowell Huesmann, argue that fifty years
of evidence show "that exposure to media violence causes children to behave more
aggressively and affects them as adults years later." Others, like Jonathan Freedman of
the University of Toronto, maintain that "the scientific evidence simply does not show
that watching violence either produces violence in people, or desensitizes them to it."
Andrea Martinez at the University of Ottawa conducted a comprehensive review of the
Commission (CRTC) in 1994. She concluded that the lack of consensus about media
effects reflects three "grey areas" or constraints contained in the research itself.
First, media violence is notoriously hard to define and measure. Some experts who track
violence in television programming, such as George Gerbner of Temple University, define
violence as the act (or threat) of injuring or killing someone, independent of the method
used or the surrounding context. Accordingly, Gerber includes cartoon violence in his
3
data-set. But others, such as University of Laval professors Guy Paquette and Jacques de
Guise, specifically exclude cartoon violence from their research because of its comical
and unrealistic presentation.
Second, researchers disagree over the type of relationship the data supports. Some
argue that exposure to media violence causes aggression. Others say that the two are
associated, but that there is no causal connection. (That both, for instance, may be
caused by some third factor.) And others say the data supports the conclusion that there
is no relationship between the two at all.
Third, even those who agree that there is a connection between media violence and
aggression disagree about how the one affects the other. Some say that the mechanism
is a psychological one, rooted in the ways we learn. For example, Huesmann argues that
children develop "cognitive scripts" that guide their own behaviour by imitating the
actions of media heroes. As they watch violent shows, children learn to internalise scripts
that use violence as an appropriate method of problem-solving.
Other researchers argue that it is the physiological effects of media violence that cause
aggressive behaviour. Exposure to violent imagery is linked to increased heart rate,
faster respiration and higher blood pressure. Some think that this simulated "fight-orflight" response predisposes people to act aggressively in the real world.
Still others focus on the ways in which media violence primes or cues pre-existing
aggressive thoughts and feelings. They argue that an individual’s desire to strike out is
justified by media images in which both the hero and the villain use violence to seek
revenge, often without consequences.
In her final report to the CRTC, Martinez concluded that most studies support "a positive,
though weak, relation between exposure to television violence and aggressive
behaviour." Although that relationship cannot be "confirmed systematically," she agrees
with Dutch researcher Tom Van der Voot who argues that it would be illogical to
conclude that "a phenomenon does not exist simply because it is found at times not to
occur, or only to occur under certain circumstances."
Passage 2
Adapted from The Psychological Effects of Violent Media on Children
Tompkins, A. 2003 All Psych Journal. December 14
Retrieved on 17 September,2010 from http://allpsych.com/journal/violentmedia.html
Violent situations are all too common in everyday entertainment and there are far less
programming choices that are non-violent than there are violent. The National Coalition
on Television Violence reported that there has been a consistent increase in the number
of violent themed video games. These games increased from fifty-three percent in 1985
to eighty-two percent in 1988 (Cesarone, 1994). A study conducted in 1989, on video
game usage and content found that most of the arcade games contained “antisocial
values of a violent nature” (Ivory, 2001).
Even if programming choices did exist, the research has proven that parents actually
have no clue as to what their children watch on television. Researchers say that parents
need to be attentive to the content these programmes have and question whether they
are appropriate for the age of their child. Parents should also monitor the amount of
time their children spend playing video games. Generally children in America have a lot
of time to spend on playing video games and on watching television. A multicultural
study found that among six different nations young Americans had the least amount of
work responsibility assigned to them. Also, instead of going outside to participate in
4
activities, they are encouraged to stay inside and watch television or play video games
alone. This excessive exposure to violent media has had negative effects.
The agreement amongst researchers on television violence is that there is a significant
increase from 3% to 15% in individuals' aggressive behavior after watching violent
television (Cesarone, 1994). In addition, a 1995 study revealed that both impulsive and
reflective young adults showed increased amounts of violent aggression towards play
objects after playing violent and non-violent video games. However, in a contradictory
study it was found that there was no difference between children who were exposed to
violent media and those who were exposed to non-violent media.
One point researchers do agree on is that violent media is not the only cause of children
committing violent acts. The involvement of parents in what their children watch, how
the family interacts with each other, what the children are exposed to in their
environment are also indicators of how they will behave and what value system they will
follow. Nonetheless, research is stronger towards media violence being a precursor to
increased aggression in children and young adults. This fact alone should be enough for
parents to become more involved in what their children are exposed to.
Although the results seem quite negative, the research thus far only suggests possible
short term effects of media violence. There is no strong evidence on the long term
effects of media violence. In summary, not one research conducted could prove either
positive or negative long term outcomes of violent media. It is clear, however, that
parents need to pay more attention to their children’s lives and not sit them in front of
the television, whether it is for movies, video games, or general television shows.
Raising a child is hard enough in this day and age but when you add all the outside
media violence it makes it ten times harder to steer your child in the right direction.
Essay
WRITE AN ESSAY of about 500 words to a university lecturer to express your opinion on
the following:
The government of your country plans to prohibit people below 18 years old from
watching or playing with all forms of media that contain violence or encourage violence.
The university has invited members of the student body to submit their views on this
convincing reasons.
Please note that you need to properly acknowledge all information you use from the
END OF PAPER
5
NANY ANG TECHNOLOGICAL
SINGAPORE
ENTRANCE
UNIVERSITY
EXAMINATION
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
FORM A
Time
allowed:
3
hou
rs
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This examination
printed pages.
contains
FIVE
(5) sections
and comprises
.
2.
All 5 sections are compulsory .
3.
Read the instructions at the beginning of each section, which specify
the marks allocated and give time recommendations.
4,
5.
Dictionaries should NOT be used.
1
TEN (10)
Section
A
Directions
your
-Writing
-Choose.Q!1£
composition.
spend
minutes
no longer
of the following
The length
than
for organizing,
should
60 minutes
45 minutes
topics
be 350-500
to complete
for writing
& clearly
words.
state
this section
and
the topic
in the title of
It is recommended
5 minutes
of the test.
Allow
that you
10
1. The pace of technological change has been extraordinarily rapid throughout the
past decade. What do you predict will be the major technological
2. As population growth around the region continues, there is tremendous pressure
on land use. Many previously untouched areas, including forests and jungles,
are now being converted into urban areas. Should governments prioritise the
conservation of natural areas or is their destruction an inevitable consequence of
3
Some countries in the region have been trying to attract more foreign talent to
boost their economic competitiveness. This has, however, caused some concern
in those countries which are faced with a "brain drain", where their own talented
professionals have left to seek better employment opportunities and higher
wages in other countries. Do you agree with this practice? Support your view.
4
Social scientists and natural scientists are not always regarded as equal when it
comes to financial compensation for the work they have done in their own fields
of study. Some people feel that natural scientists, including medical doctors and
geneticists, should be paid higher wages, as their work makes a more obvious
contribution to the development of mankind. Do you agree with this? Support
5.
Computers
are becoming a standard
world.
Can computers
be effectively
feature in school classrooms throughout
used in the teaching of every subject?
TOTAL:
the
30 MARKS
Section
Comprehension
to spend a maximum of 50 minutes on the reading section.
THE FUELWOOD CRISIS
1
Two billion people are caught in a specific energy crisis -the shortage of
fuelwood. Nearly half of humanity has not yet entered the age of fossil fuels and
depends on wood for warmth, light and cooking. But as trees are cut down, fuelwood
is becoming scarce over large parts of sub-Saharan Africa, the Middle East and Asia.
2
Fuelwood accounts for a large proportion of all energy consumption in many
developing countries. More than 90 per cent of energy use in such nations as
Tanzania, Nepal and Ethiopia comes from wood. It even supplies more than four
fifths of oil-rich Nigeria's needs, and many other countries get half to three quarters of
their energy from wood.
3
Already 100 million people in developing countries cannot get sufficient
fuelwood to meet their minimum energy needs, and close to 1.3 billion are
consuming fuelwood resources faster than they are being replenished. If present
trends continue, the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
predicts that, in the next decade, another 1 billion people will be faced with chronic
fuelwood shortages.
4
Thus within a decade, more than half of the population of developing
countri~s will not be able to meet their minimum needs for energy or will be forced to
consume wood faster than it can be grown. There is little chance that they could find
any other source of heat and light. Usually there are no viable alternative fuels and,
where there are alternatives, they cost too much. Already even a few sticks of wood
can be prohibitively expensive in areas affected by severe shortages. It costs some
rural families in India and Pakistan as much to heat the evening dinner bowl as it
does to fill it. Health and nutrition are affected, as boiling water becomes an
unaffordable luxury. Mothers are forced to feed their children on cereals, which cook
quickly, rather than slower cooking and more nutritious foods, like beans.
5
Even in wood-rich areas like the Amazon, some towns are feeling the energy
pinch. In Manuas, Brazil, for example, the majority of the poorer residents depend on
charcoal for preparing meals. As the jungle recedes further away every year, due to
expanding agriculture and logging, the cost of trucking in fuel rises. A week's supply
of charcoal for an average family costs around \$2 -a considerable amount of money
in a town where the average wage is \$2 a day.
6
As supplies dwindle, villagers -mainly women and children -have to spend
more time searching for wood. Women in the village of Kalsaka in Africa walk three
and a half hours through searing heat to collect wood that used to be available close
to their huts. Families in the uplands of Nepal spend 230 person-days a year on
fuelwood collection to meet family needs. Inevitably, less time can be spent in
growing food.
7
Ostensibly, the fuelwood shortage has been attributed to the overexploitation of forests and woodlots by the rural poor as human numbers and energy
needs increase. This is an important factor. Yet the roots of the fuelwood crisis are
more intricate: rampant logging, in combination with animal foraging and slash-andburn cultivation, contribute to the fuelwood deficit. Deforestation is followed by
erosion, desert encroachment, loss of biomass productivity and reduced water
retention capacity of the soil.
3
8
Another consideration, often overlooked, is the increasing consumption of
wood and charcoal by urban dwellers. Urbanization concentrates people and puts
increasing stress on basic necessities such as food, energy, drinking water and
shelter, exacting a heavy toll on the surrounding countryside. A study by the Beijer
Institute of Stockholm, made for the Kenyan Government, found that proportionally
one of the major contributors to deforestation was not rural fuelwood use, which was
found to be mostly sustainable, but the wholesale conversion of wood to charcoal for
sale to people living in towns and cities.
9
Charcoal is used to meet city needs because it is so much lighter than the
original wood, and therefore much cheaper to transport. But converting wood to
charcoal in traditional earthen pits consumes more than half its energy. So each
town dweller uses twice as much wood for a given amount of energy as a country
person who continues to use the original wood.
10
The World Bank estimates that meeting the fuelwood crisis will require
planting 55 million hectares with fast-growing trees at a rate of 2.7 million hectares a
year, five times the present annual rate of 555,000 hectares. But simply planting
more trees, even fast-growing ones, is only part of the solution. The right species
have to be selected for each particular environment, taking into account growth rates
water and mineral needs, and adaptability, among other things. Above.all, the trees
have to be planted where they will be used and by the people who will use them.
This implies an emphasis on community woodlots, not the creation of huge fuelwood
plantations filled with monocultures, located too far from where the wood is needed.
11
Some species show great promise. The Leucaena or ipil ipil, a native of
Mexico, is one of the world's fastest growing trees. It can reach heights of 20 meters
in six years. A Leucaena plantation can provide up to 50 metric tons of wood per
hectare per year, or five times the average for cultivated pines in temperate regions.
Its nitrogen-fixing roots also replenish the soil.
12
At the same time, more efficient stoves must be developed to allow the wood
to burn longer, extracting more energy from each stick. The traditional three-stone
fire is a very inefficient way of burning wood; its conversion efficiency may only reach
6 per cent of the fuel value of the wood. Unfortunately, many1mproved stoves have
proved unworkable because they have technical problems or are made with material
too expensive or too difficult to obtain. Improved stoves, however, must respond to
local needs. The materials for building them have to be locally available, easily
accessible and relatively cheap. The Lorena stove from Guatemala cuts fuelwood
consumption in half. Molded from mud and sand, and fitted with a simple metal
damper and pipe, it costs the equivalent of \$5. The World Bank estimates that the
use of more efficient stoves- together with fuel substitution where practicable- could
reduce fuelwood consumption by a quarter .
13
The threat of massive fuelwood shortages in the next century should prompt
governments and international agencies to commit money and manpower to solving
this crisis now, before it turns into a human tragedy.
Questions:
The Fuelwood Crisis
This section consists of FIFTEEN (15) multiple choice questions. Choose the correct
answer (a), (b), (c) or (d) next to the question number. Write in one column. Each
multiple choice question carries two marks.
1. The main idea of this reading passage as a whole is that
a) Charcoal is a substitute for fuelwood, and its widespread use can alleviate the
fuelwood crisis.
b) As supplies of fuelwood decrease, we need to develop new approaches to its
production and use.
c) The development of fast growing trees will help to avert the impending fuelwood
crisis.
d) The fuelwood crisis has occurred as a direct result of rapid urbanization in
developing countries.
2. According to the information
in paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT
correct?
a) Less than 10% of energy use in nations including Tanzania, Nepal and Ethiopia
comes from sources other than wood.
b) Fuelwood is consumed in large quantities for energy use in developing countries.
c) Ethiopian wood supplies more than 80% of Nigeria's energy needs.
d) Less than 20% of Nigeria's energy needs are met by sources other than wood.
3. Within ten years it is likely that
a) fewer people in developing countries will be faced with continuing fuelwood
shortages.
b) over 50% of people in developing countries will not be able to meet their energy
needs.
c) other sources of heat and light will be discovered .
d) low cost alternatives to fuelwood will be developed .
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The example of mothers feeding their children cereal is given in order to
illustrate regional variations in cooking .
support the view that cereal is the most nutritious food for children.
explain the process by which children suffer from malnutrition .
show that the high cost of fuelwood can impact on health and nutrition .
5.
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
The example
of women
in Kalsaka walking
to collect wood is given in order
illustrate the point that supplies of wood are not as plentiful now.
show that the situation is now better than it was in the past .
explain the process of deforestation in Kalsaka .
support the view that physical exercise is necessary for a healthy life .
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The main purpose of paragraphs 7-9 is to
explain the complex causes of the fuelwood crisis .
compare the effectiveness of charcoal and wood as energy sources.
show that the rural poor are responsible for the fuelwood crisis .
explain the way in which the fuelwood crisis has influenced urbanization .
7.
of the use of charcoal,
a) its weight .
b) its cost to transport .
c) the energy consumption
involved in producing
d) the difficulty of producing charcoal in earthen
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
as opposed
to wood,
is
it .
pits .
Planting more trees will not work if
the trees grow extremely rapidly.
the appropriate kind of tree is chosen for each special environment .
the people who will use the trees plant them in a convenient location
only fuelwood plantations filled with monocultures are developed .
9. People living in cities have contributed to the fuelwood crisis
a) because of their reliance on the use of wood and charcoal for energy.
b) .by polluting the atmosphere and destroying large tracts of forests .
c) because of their preference for wood as a source of energy.
d) to a lesser degree than rural dwellers, who continue to cut down trees .
10. More efficient stoves have not been widely used because
a) the traditional three stone fire is the most efficient way of burning wood .
b) there have been technical problems that have made their use difficult .
c) it is not possible to make money from producing stoves for developing countries.
d) the materials used to make them have been easy to get .
11. The writer warns that the consequences
of the developing fuelwood crisis
will be disastrous unless
a) governments spend more and devote more human resources to solving the
fuelwood crisis .
b) the World Bank spends more on developing large forests that suit the needs of
local populations .
c) governments control the price of wood and charcoal,
d) governments delay acting until they have fully established the causes of the
fuelwood crisis .
12.
Which of the following would be the best replacement for the underlined
part of the sentence from paragraph 5?
"Even in wood-rich areas like the Amazon, some towns are feelina the enerav
pinch."
a) stealing wood from neighbouring towns
b) using only wood to supply the energy needs of their population
c) having no difficulties meeting the energy needs of their population
d) finding it a strain to meet their energy needs of their population
13. The word
" ostensibly
" (paragraph
a) unfortunately,
given the circumstances
b) appearing to be true, but not necessarily
c) erronously,
with the intent to deceive
7) is closest
in meaning
so
d) infrequently
14. "!! costs the equivalent of \$5 (paragraph
a) the LorenaStove
b) fuelwood consumption
c) a simple metal damper and pipe
d) Guatemala
6
12 .!1refers
to
to
15.
a)
b)
c)
d)
This reading would probably have appeared in
a daily newspaper
an elementary school science textbook
a senior high school environmental science textbook
a specialist environmental science journal
TOTAL: 30 MARKS
7
Section C-Word
Forms
In the following, give the correct form of the word or verb in the brackets for each
against it. DO NOT write out the whole passage. Each answer carries one mark.
You are advised to spend a maximum of 30 minutes on this section.
Conservation
Conservation is the sustainable use of natural resources, such as soils, water ,
plants, animals, and minerals. The natural resources of any area constitute its
basic capital, and ...1... (waste) use of those resources constitutes an ...2...
(economy) loss. From the aesthetic viewpoint, conservation also includes the ...3...
(maintain) of national parks, wilderness areas, ...4... (history) sites, and wildlife.
Natural resources are of two main types, renewable and nonrenewable.
Renewable resources. ..5. ..(including) wildlife and natural vegetation of all kinds.
The soil itself can be considered a renewable resource, although severe damage is
...6... (extreme) difficult to repair because of the slow rate of soil-forming
processes. The natural ...7... (drain) of waters from the watershed of a region can
be maintained indefinitely by careful ...8... (manage) of vegetation and soils, and
the quality of water can be controlled through ...9... (pollute) control.
Nonrenewable resources are those that cannot be replaced or that can be replaced
only over ...10... (incredible) long periods of time. Such resources comprise the
fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, and natural gas) and the metallic and other ores.
Although the conservation of natural resources has been recognized as. ..11 ...
(desire) by many peoples since ancient times, frequently the ...12... (base)
principles of sound land use have been ignored, with ...13... (disaster) results.
Major losses-for
example, the silting of rivers and the flooding of lowlandsresulted from the ...14... (destroy) of the forests and grasslands that ...15...
(protection) watersheds in northern China and the Tigris-Euphrates area of Asia.
Large areas in North Africa and the Middle East were rendered barren by centuries
of uncontrolled livestock grazing, unwise cultivation, and ...16... (excess) cutting of
woody plants for fuel. Similar damage has also occurred in most of the more
...17. ..(recent) developed regions of the world, sometimes through the unwise
...18. ..(introduce) of species into new environments. The. ..19. ..(increase )
industrialization of nations around the world continues to present grave
conservation problems although international cooperation efforts have also evolved
in certain areas, such as the protection of some ...20... (endanger) species.
TOTAL: 20 MARKS
8
Section D-Fill
in the blanks
Supply a suitable word for each of the numbered blanks (you are given the beginning
letter of the required word). In your answer book, write down the number and your
answer (the entire word) against it. Do not write out the whole passage. Each
answer carries ?12mark. You are advised to spend a maximum of 25 minutes on this
section.
Acid
Rain
Acid rain, a form of air pollution, is currently a subject of great controversy
for which it has been blamed. It forms
w-.:L oxides of sulfur and nitrogen combine with atmospheric moisture to yield
sulfuric and nitric acids, w~
may then be carried long distances from their
source b-4they are deposited by rain. The pollution may also take the form of
snow or fog or be precipitated i-2dry forms. The dry form of such precipitation is
just as damaging to the environment a-2--- the liquid form.
The problem of acid rain originated w. 7- the Industrial Revolution, and it has
been growing ever since. The severity of its e~
has long been recognized in
local settings, as exemplified b~
the spells of acid smog in heavily industrialized
areas. The widespread destructiveness of acid rain, h 10 , has become evident
only in recent decades. One large area that has been studied extensively is
northern Europe, w 11 acid rain has eroded structures, injured crops and
forests, and threatened or depleted life in freshwater lakes. In 1984, for example,
environmental reports indicated that a 12 half of the trees in Germany's Black
Forest had been damaged by acid rain. The northeastern United States and
eastern Canada have been p 13 affected by this form of pollution. Damage has
a. 14 -been detected in other areas of these countries and other regions of the
world.
Industrial emissions have been blamed as the m 15 cause of acid rain.
Because the chemical reactions involved i 16 the production of acid rain in the
atmosphere are complex and as yet little understood, industries have tended to
challenge s 17
assessments and to stress the need for further studies; and b
1.e.- of the cost of pollution reduction, governments have tended to support this
attitude. Studies released by the U.S. government in the e 19 1980s, however,
strongly implicated industries as the main s?Q.-of
acid rain, in the eastern U.S.
TOTAL: 10 MARKS
9
Section
E- Paraphrasing
closely as possible to the meaning in Sentence A. You are advised to spend a
maximum of 15 minutes on this section.
IExample:1
A.
B.
~
This
story
don't
doesn't
amuse
as
me.
find
I don't
find
this story
amusing.
A. He ran away as soon as he saw a policeman
B. The moment ...
2. A. The discipline mistress reprimanded our class for making too mu"ch noise.
B. Our class ...
3. A. Between Lin Yang and Wong Lu, one of them has to finish the job.
B. Either ...
4.
A. Although
Jane
won
the
second
prize
in the story
telling
competition,
she was
not happy.
B. In spite
of ...
5. A. The man is too old to do anything.
B. The man is so. ..
6. A. The experience is fantastic!
B. What ...
7. A. Cou'd you do me a favour?
B. Would you mind ...
8. A. The librarian denied me entry into the library because I didn't have a
membership card.
8.1 was ...
9.
A. I am very familiar
B. The environment
10.
A.
The
B.
I
movie
was
with the environment
here. ..
here.
interesting,
TOTAL: 10 MARKS
-END OF PAPER -
10
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
CHEMISTRY
Duration
: 2 hours
1.
This examination has TWO (2) sections – A and B, and comprises SIX (6) printed
pages.
2.
Attempt all sections.
3.
provided. Each question carries 2 marks. Marks will not be deducted for wrong
4.
paper provided. Begin each question with a fresh sheet of paper.
Write the
question number clearly. Each question carries 20 marks.
5.
At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer
script.
Complete the information required on the cover page and tie the papers
together with the string provided.
6.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper,
out of the examination hall.
SECTION A
(40 Marks)
Answer All Questions. (2 marks for each question).
1.
How many lone pairs are there at C in CO32-?
A
B
C
D
E
2.
How many lone pairs are there at N in NH4+?
A
B
C
D
E
3.
redox
disproportionation
condensation
none of the above
CH2N2 readily liberates CH2. This statement is most likely _____
A
B
C
D
E
5.
0
0.5
1
1.5
2
Reaction between NH3 with BH3 is an example of ______ reactions.
A
B
C
D
E
4.
0
0.5
1
1.5
2
correct
wrong
only correct if H is replaced by R
only correct if N is replaced by S
unable to judge as the molecule is too unstable
The reaction CO2 + H2O Æ H2CO3 is most likely to produce quantitative yield
of the product. This statement is most likely _____
A
B
C
D
E
correct
wrong
correct if CO2 is in excess
correct if the solution is very diluted
unable to judge since the pH is not known
2
6.
The N-N bond in N2H4 is likely to be ______
A
B
C
D
E
7.
Which of the following is a good example of a compound with
A
B
C
D
E
8.
esterification
photosynthesis
Aldol condensation
trans-esterification
enzymatic photo-oxidation
In pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7, there is/are _____ P-H bonds.
A
B
C
D
E
10.
H3BO3
B2H6
NF3
all of the above
none of the above
An important biosynthesis of carbohydrates in plants is _____
A
B
C
D
E
9.
weak and reactive
weak and unreactive
strong and reactive
strong and unreactive
unable to judge
0
1
2
3
4
Which of the following is (comparatively) most alkaline?
A
B
C
D
E
sea water
tomatoes
black coffee
(unpolluted) rain
urine
3
π bond?
11.
The conjugate base of C2H5OH is ______
A
B
C
D
E
12.
10-9 is commonly expressed as ___
A
B
C
D
E
13.
fully filled
half-filled
empty
half-filled but only in the excited state
fully filled but only in the excited state
In H+, the s orbital is _____
A
B
C
D
E
15.
micro
nano
pico
molecular
meso
In H-, the s orbital is _____
A
B
C
D
E
14.
OHC2H5OC2H5+
CH3OO2-
fully filled
half-filled
empty
half-filled but only in the excited state
fully filled but only in the excited state
In the solid state structure of BeCl2, the major force among individual [BeCl2]
molecules is likely to be _______ interactions.
A
B
C
D
E
dipole-dipole interaction
van der Waal interaction
ionic
covalent
two of the above
4
16.
Scattering of light by a colloidal system is commonly called _______ effect.
A
B
C
D
E
17.
The reaction between carboxylic acid and amine can be considered a/an
________ reaction.
A
B
C
D
E
18.
oxidation
reduction
disproportionation
hydrolysis
none of the above
When table sugar dissolves in water, it mostly undergoes _______
A
B
C
D
E
20.
condensation
redox
hydrolysis
metathesis
The reaction between NH4Cl and AgNCO gives urea, NH2COCH2. In the
process, Ag+ undergoes ________
A
B
C
D
E
19.
Dalton
Perkin
Raman
Tyndall
Esosteric
hydrolysis
solvolysis
dissociation
all of the above
none of the above
How many pi (π) bonds are there in H2CO?
A
B
C
D
E
0
1.0
1.5
2.0
none of the above
5
SECTION B
(60 Marks)
Answer three (3) of the following five (5) questions (20 marks for each question).
(If there is any physical constant or data that you need in your calculation but which is not
found in the question, you may denote them as “x”, “y”… etc, explain them, and indicate
1.
“Since H+ is highly acidic and since H2O undergoes protonation easily to give
H3O+, it is likely that the latter would further react with H+ to give H4O2+
Examine this statement carefully by determining whether it is true or false
and, if false, under what situation would the statement be valid. Explain.
2.
A mixture of acetaldehyde CH3CHO and propanal C2H5CHO under basic
conditions would readily yield four products. Identify them and sketch
carefully their structures.
3.
You are given the following ions, namely (a) CH3+; (b) CH2R+; (c) CHR2+; (d)
CR3+.
Arrange them in a descending
arrangement carefully.
4.
5.
order
of
stability
and
explain
your
Sketch the Lewis structures of the following:
(a)
H2SO5
(b)
HNO3
(c)
HClO3
What is the concentration of H3O+ in a 1.00 x 10-2 M NaOH solution? State
clearly the assumptions, if any, you make.
(Kw = 1.00 x 10-14)
END OF PAPER
6
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
CHEMISTRY
Time: 1 pm to 3 pm
Duration: 2 hours
1. This examination has TWO (2) printed pages.
3.
At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer script. Complete the
information required on the cover paper. The cover paper for this examination is GREEN.
4.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper, out of the
examination hall.
Question 1
a.
Propose a reasonable acid-base reaction (with balanced equation) and identify the acid and base in
the substrates.
b.
Propose a reasonable redox reaction (with balanced equation) and identify the reducing and
oxidizing agents.
c.
Propose a reasonable disproportionation reaction (with balanced equation). Is this a variant of redox
reaction? If so, what is reduced and what is oxidized (in the reaction that you have proposed)? If
not, why not?
(30 marks)
Question 2
Examine and discuss the validly of the following statement critically and concisely:
“NCl5 is a reasonable and stable compound because the five electrons on nitrogen can form bonds with
the five surrounding chloride.”
(35 marks)
Question 3
What is the pH of a 0.015 M solution of sodium acetate, NaCH3CO2? State your assumptions, if any,
clearly.
(Water ionization constant Kw = 1.0 x 10-14 at 25oC; equilibrium constant Kb (CH3COO-) = 5.6 x 10-10)
(35 marks)
2
NANYANG TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
SINGAPORE
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
CHEMISTRY (Sample)
Time Allowed : 2 hours
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
This paper consists of TWO (2) Sections and comprises EIGHT (8) pages.
2.
Answer ALL the questions in Section A and Section B.
3.
For Section A, each multiple choice question carries 2 marks. Section B consists of 3
questions (total 40 marks).
SECTION A
This section consists of THIRTY (30) multiple choice questions. Answer ALL questions in this
section.
1.
Which of the following has no permanent dipole moments?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
Which is the most abundant element in the universe?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
CHCl3
CH2Cl2
C2Cl4
C2HCl3
Hydrogen
Helium
Carbon
Oxygen
Which one of the following equilibrium mixture will not be affected by a change in
pressure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CH3CH=CH2(g) + H2O(g)
CH3CH2CH2OH(g)
BaCO3(s)
BaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g)
2HCl(g)
O2(g) + 2Hg(l)
2HgO(s)
1
4.
Calcium with elemental chlorine yields calcium chloride. Write a balanced chemical
equation for this reaction.
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
On heating, 0.09 mole of an element M reacts with 0.135 mole of oxygen gas. The empirical
formula of the oxide of M is
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
1s22s22p63s23p63d34s2
1s22s22p63s23p63d6
1s22s22p63s23p63d5
1s22s22p63s23p63d64s2
A microwave oven emits radiation at a wavelength of 0.500 cm. What is the frequency of
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
-57.7 kJ
+714.3 kJ
0 kJ
+57.7 kJ
Iron has a atomic number of 26. What is the electron configuration of the iron in FeCl3?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
M2O2
M3O2
M4O6
M2O3
Given that ΔH0f (FeCl2(s)) = -341.8 kJ/mol and that ΔH0f (FeCl3(s)) = -399.5 kJ/mol, what is
ΔHrxn for the reaction: FeCl2(s) + ½ Cl2(g) →FeCl3(s)
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
Ca(s) + Cl2(g) → CaCl(s) + Cl(g)
Ca(s) + Cl2(g) → CaCl2(s)
Ca(s) + 2 Cl2(g) → CaCl4(s)
2 Ca(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 CaCl(s)
1.67 × 10-11 s-1
6.67 × 10-7 s-1
6.00 × 1010 s-1
2.00 s-1
The radioactive decay of sodium-24 has a half-life of 14.66 hours. How many grams of the
radioactive sodium-24 will be left after 73 hours if the initial weight of the sample is 4g?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.125g
0.032g
0.064g
0.26g
2
10. Use the following information to answer the question below:
Sn2+(aq) + 2e
Sn(s)
E0 = -0.14 V
Sn4+(aq) + 2e
Sn2+(s)
E0 = +0.15 V
Fe(s)
E0 = -0.44 V
Fe2+(aq) + 2e
Fe3+(aq) + e
Fe2+(aq)
E0 = +0.77 V
Under standard conditions, which of the following statements is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sn(s) can reduce Fe(s)
Fe(s) can oxidize Sn2+(aq)
Sn2+(aq) can reduce Fe3+(aq)
Fe3+(aq) can reduce Sn4+(aq)
11. What is the pH of a solution of HNO3 with a concentration of 0.0013M?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.89
6.64
1.30
11.10
12. The maximum number of electrons in the shell having the principle quantum number of n =
3 is
a.
b.
c.
d.
18
26
28
36
13. The hybridization of the nitrogen atom in the molecule NF3 is
a.
b.
c.
d.
sp2
spd
sp3
sp3d
14. Which of the following statements is true about the elements in Group II of the Periodic
Table?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The ionic radius decreases down the group
The electronegativity decreases down the group
They form stable oxidation states of two and four
The atomic radius increases down the group
3
15. The oxidation number of Chromium in the ion CrO42a.
b.
c.
d.
+4
+7
+6
+3
16. Which of the following compounds would react most rapidlywith NaCN?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1-bromobutane
(R)-2-bromobutane
(S)-2-bromobutane
1-bromo-2-methylpropane
17. The following reaction can be classified as
O
O
a.
b.
c.
d.
200°C
+ CH3CO2H
CH3
eminination
substitution
oxidation
rearrangement
18. Reaction of benzene with benzoyl chloride and aluminium trichloride will give as the
product:
a.
b.
c.
d.
benzophenone
chlorobenzene
no reaction
benzoic acid
19. What will be the product(s) of the following reaction:
Br
Br
NaOMe,
MeOH,
20°C
OMe
MeO
(iii) only
(ii) only
(i) and (ii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
4
OMe
Br
(ii)
(i)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Br
MeO
(iii)
20. What will be the product(s) of the following reaction
KOH, EtOH, 80°C
OH
(i)
Br
a.
b.
c.
d.
(ii)
(iii)
(i) only
(ii) only
(ii) and (iii)
(iii) only
21. Phosphorus forms three well known compounds containing chlorine: phosphorus trichloride
(PCl3), phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5) and phosphorus oxychloride (POCl3). What are the
oxidation numbers of phosphorus in the compounds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
PCl3
–3
+1
+3
+3
PCl5
–5
+1
+5
+5
POCl3
–5
+3
+4
+5
22. Which of the following is the formula for a covalent network?
a.
b.
c.
d.
N2O4
P4O10
CO2
SiO2
23. Which of the following is a pure compound?
a. Milk
b. Ice cream
c. Lava
d. Distilled water
24. Which of the following electron configurations represents the ground state of an element?
a.
b.
c.
d.
[Ne]3s13p1
[He]2s12p3
[Ne]3s23p33d1
[Ne]3s23p3
25. Formic acid (HCO2H) has Ka = 1.8 × 10–4. What is the value of Kb for the formate ion
(HCO2–)?
a. –1.8 × 10–4
b. 1.8 × 1010
5
c. 5.6 × 10–11
d. 5.6 × 104
26. Which of the following molecules/ions has non-zero dipole moments?
a.
b.
c.
d.
cis-HClC=CHCl
O2
BF3
ICl4–
27. An increase in temperature increases the reaction rate because
a.
b.
c.
d.
a greater fraction of the collisions have the correct orientation of molecules
the activation energy of the reaction will decrease.
temperature acts as a catalyst in chemical reactions.
more collisions will have enough energy to exceed the activation energy.
28. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction using the provided equilibrium
concentrations.
H2(g) + I2(g)
2 HI(g)
[H2] = 0.0057 mol L–1, [I2] = 0.0057 mol L–1, [HI] = 0.0345 mol L–1
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.4 × 10–4
0.027
37
1.1 × 103
29. In the following reaction:
HF(aq) + HPO42–(aq)
a.
b.
c.
d.
F–(aq) + H2PO4–(aq)
HF is an acid and F– is its conjugate base.
HF is an acid and HPO42– is its conjugate base.
HPO42– is an acid and H2PO4– is its conjugate base.
H2PO4– is an acid and F– is its conjugate base.
6
30. The ionization energies (IE) of Ti are as follows:
I
6.82
II
13.58
III
27.49
IV
43.27
V
99.22 eV
Stable oxidation states are expected when the difference in successive IE's exceeds 12 eV
for valence electrons. What stable oxidation states are expected for Ti?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ti(I) only
Ti (I) and Ti(V)
Ti(I), Ti(II) and Ti(IV)
Ti(II), Ti(III) and Ti(IV)
SECTION B
This section consists of THREE (3) questions. Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. (a) Using dots to represent electrons, draw the electron distribution diagram (Lewis
structure) of ClF3. Use Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory (VSEPR) to explain the
shape of this molecule.
(b) Draw and label all the valence orbitals found in chlorine atom.
2. Data for the reaction 2 NO(g) + O2(g)  2 NO2 (g) are given in the table.
Experiment
1
2
3
4
Concentration (mol/L)
[NO]
[O2]
3.6×10-4
5.2×10-3
3.6×10-4
1.04×10-2
-4
1.8×10
1.04×10-2
-4
1.8×10
5.2×10-3
Initial Rate
(mol/L · h)
3.4×10-8
6.8×10-8
1.7×10-8
?
(a) Determine the rate constant and write down the rate equation for the above
reaction.
(b) What is the initial rate of the reaction in experiment 4?
3. (a) Discuss the difference in reactivity between the following pairs of compounds under the
conditions given
(i) benzene and phenol with bromine
(ii) 1-hexanol and 2-hexanol with chromium trioxide in acid
(iii) ethylamine and acetamide with dilute hydrochloric acid
7
(iv) sodium methoxide and sodium t-butoxide with 1-bromopropane
(b) How would you carry out the following transformation? More than one step may be
required.
OH
OH
O
- END OF PAPER -
8
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
HUMANITIES
Time: 3.30pm to 6.30pm
Duration: 3 hours
1. This examination has THREE (3) sections – A, B and C, and comprises FOUR (4) printed pages.
2. Answer FIVE (5) questions from any of the three sections. Candidates intending to offer Economics
or Computing must answer at least THREE (3) questions from the Economics section, i.e. section A.
3. Write your answers on the answer paper provided. Begin each question on a fresh sheet of paper.
Write the question number beside each question.
4. At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer script. Complete the
information required on the cover paper. The cover paper for this examination is PINK.
5. Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper, out of the
examination hall.
SECTION A - ECONOMICS
1. ABC Telecoms, one of the two long-distance telephone companies in the country, recently cut its
rates on all international telephone calls.
a. Distinguish between price elasticity of demand, cross elasticity of demand, and income elasticity
of demand. (10 marks)
b. How relevant would knowing the various elasticities of demand help in explaining the move by
ABC Telecoms? (10 marks)
2.
“Monopoly is a more efficient market structure than monopolistic competition.” Comment. (20
marks)
3.
The external value of many Asian currencies plunged during the Asian Financial Crisis.
a. What does it mean to say that a currency depreciates in value? What might cause such a
change? (12 marks)
b. Is depreciation of a country’s currency always detrimental to the health of its economy? (8
marks)
4.
Do you think monetary policy is sufficient to achieve a low rate of inflation? (20 marks)
5.
Given below is the amount of beef OR computers that a Canadian or a Mexican worker can produce
in a day.
Beef
Computer
a.
b.
c.
9
3
Mexico
5
2
Which country has the absolute advantage in computer production? Explain. (6 marks)
Which country has the comparative advantage in computer production? Explain. (6 marks)
If they specialize in production, what are the limits to the terms of trade? (8 marks)
2
SECTION B – GEOGRAPHY
1.
Discuss the negative and positive implications for rural – urban migration with reference to a
particular country in East or Southeast Asia. (20 marks)
2.
Why is sustainable natural resource management difficult to achieve? Illustrate this with specific
examples. (20 marks)
3.
Why are regional human geography differences important within the European Union? (20 marks)
4.
Critically examine some of the causes of river pollution and its impacts with reference to specific
examples. (20 marks)
5.
With reference to a particular place, examine the significance of global – local interactions on the
human landscape. (20 marks)
3
SECTION C – HISTORY
1.
“Western imperialism in Southeast Asia was driven by strategic rather than economic concerns.”
State whether you agree or disagree with this statement, and explain why. (20 marks)
2.
What is the origin of the imagined communities that Benedict Anderson argues lie at the heart of
Southeast Asian nationalism? (20 marks)
3.
India and Southeast Asia both have populations that speak many different languages, practice
different religions, and follow different cultural norms. India emerged from colonial rule as a
single state, but Southeast Asia did not. Why is this the case? (20 marks)
4.
Compare and contrast the globalisation of early twentieth century imperialism and that of late
twentieth century capitalism. (20 marks)
5.
Most Asian countries trace their modern history to the actions of one or at most two or three
national leaders (such as Ghandi and Nehru, Sukarno and Hatta, Ho Chi Minh, Mao Tse-tung and
so on). Japan does not. Why do you think this is the case? (20 marks)
4
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
HUMANITIES
Duration
: 3 hours
1.
This examination has THREE (3) sections – A, B and C, and comprises SIX (6)
printed pages.
2.
Answer FIVE (5) questions from any of the three sections. Candidates intending
to offer Economics or Computing must answer at least THREE (3) questions from
the Economics section, i.e. section A.
3.
fresh sheet of paper. Write the question numbers clearly. Each question carries
20 marks.
4.
At the end of the examination, attach the cover paper on top of your answer
script.
Complete the information required on the cover page and tie the papers
together with the string provided.
6.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper and unused answer paper,
out of the examination hall.
SECTION A
-
ECONOMICS
Each question carries 20 marks. Candidates intending to offer Economics or Computing
must answer at least THREE (3) questions from the Economics section, i.e. section A.
A1.
(a)
Using a graph, illustrate and explain the effect that an increase in production
costs will have on the equilibrium price and quantity of a good.
(4 marks)
(b)
Suppose that the government increases a tax paid by employers for hiring
workers. Using a graph, illustrate and explain the likely effects on real wages,
output and employment? What are the likely magnitudes of these effects?
(10 marks)
(c)
What are the three properties of money?
(6 marks)
A2.
(a)
The table below shows the population and real GDP in 2021 for two countries,
A and B, for the years 2021 and 2031. Which of these two countries
experienced a faster increase in the standard of living between 2021 and
2031?
(5 marks)
Troy
Real GDP
Population
2021
\$175 billion
62.3 million
2031
\$189 billion
63.7 million
Pompeii
2021
\$476 billion
73.6 million
2031
\$547 billion
82.4 million
(b)
How would a nation’s central bank’s reduction of the reserve ratio
requirement affect money creation?
(5 marks)
(c)
How would a central bank’s sale of government bonds on the open market
affect money creation?
(5 marks)
(d)
Explain how automatic stabilizers work.
(5 marks)
2
A3.
(a)
Explain why financial intermediaries are necessary to facilitate the
movement of funds from savers to investors and how they provide benefits
to both groups.
(5 marks)
(b)
Explain what is meant by a devaluation of a currency. Under what
circumstances would a country devalue its currency?
(5 marks)
(c)
The following are some changes that may take place in the market for
textbooks. For each of the following, indicate what will happen to either the
demand for or the supply of textbooks by listing which curve is affected and
then the terms: "shift right", "shift left", or "movement along".
(i)
an increase in student enrollment at universities across the country
(ii)
a decrease in the price of ink used to print textbooks
(iii)
a drop in income (textbooks are a normal good)
(iv)
an improvement in the technology used to print textbooks
(v)
an increase in college tuition
(10 marks)
A4.
(a)
Would consumers benefit more from a tariff or a quota on imports?
(5 marks)
(b)
Distinguish the current account from the capital account.
(c)
The market for restaurant pizza in Chicago is currently in equilibrium at a
price of \$8 and 2,000 pizzas are sold each day. Explain what will happen to
the equilibrium price and quantity of pizzas sold and why (which curve has
changed) for each of the following situations:
(5 marks)
(i)
delivery personnel form a labour union and demand to be paid \$7.50
per hour (a large increase in their wage).
(ii)
fast-food hamburger restaurants (Burger King & McDonalds) cut their
prices in half.
(10 marks)
3
A5.
Year 2004
Year 2005
Quantities
DVDs
100
120
Produced
DVD Player
200
210
DVDs
20
22
Prices
DVD Player
110
120
(a)
Calculate real GDP using prices from 2004. By what percent did real GDP
grow from 2004 to 2005?
(5 marks)
(b)
Calculate the value of the price index for GDP for 2005 using 2004 as the
base year. By what percent did prices increase?
(5 marks)
(c)
Consider an economy in which: C= 200 + 0.5y and I = 200.
(i)
Find equilibrium income.
(ii)
What is the multiplier for investment spending for this economy?
(iii)
What is the savings function?
(iv)
What is the level of savings at the level of equilibrium income?
(10 marks)
4
SECTION B
-
GEOGRAPHY
Answer a total of FIVE (5) questions only. These five questions may be from any of
the three sections.
Each question carries 20 marks.
Candidates intending to offer
Economics or Computing must answer at least THREE (3) questions from the Economics
section, i.e. section A.
B1.
Examine the likely contributing causes to the Southeast Asian “haze”
phenomenon.
B2.
What is “eco-tourism”? Why may it bring both costs and benefits to rural
areas?
B3.
Discuss the reasons for the development of mega-cities with reference to
specific examples you know of.
B4.
Why is it necessary to consider the physical – human geography interface
when examining issues of environmental degradation?
B5.
Why are human geographers so interested in the concept and meanings of
“place”?
5
SECTION C
-
HISTORY
Instructions to Candidates:
Write an extended, coherent, well-organised and factually supported answer in English.
Each question is worth 20 marks.
C1.
“Nationalism is responsible for most of the wars of the 20th century.” Do
you agree? Discuss in relation to any ONE of these regions: Southeast Asia,
East Asia or South Asia.
C2.
Discuss why European powers could not and did not need to fully dominate
Asian countries from 1500 to 1800?
C3.
“Colonised societies would be nothing more than backward polities had it not
been for western colonialism.” Using the example of any Southeast Asian
country, argue for or against this statement.
C4.
What was the significance of the Meiji Restoration in Japanese history?
C5.
What themes can we use to discuss the history of Asia that do not place an
emphasis on geographic categories such as “Southeast Asia”, “East Asia” and
“South Asia”? Discuss at least three themes and show how they cut across
all the regions listed above while using examples to illustrate your points.
END OF PAPER
6
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
BIOLOGY
Duration
: 2 hours
1.
This paper is made up of 60 Multiple-Choice questions and comprises THIRTEEN
(13) printed pages.
2.
Do not write on the question paper.
3.
Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.
4.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper or unused answer sheets,
out of the examination hall.
1
Multiple-Choice Questions
Answer all questions in this section.
1.
Which of the following has cell wall made of cellulose?
A
B
C
D
2.
A skin is
A
B
C
D
3.
predation.
parasitism.
mutualism.
symbiosis.
A student examined the egg cell in an ovule of a plant and found that it contains
18 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are there in each of the root-tip cells
of this plant?
A
B
C
D
5.
an organelle.
a tissue.
an organ.
an organ system.
The ecological relationship between humans and bacterial infections like
tuberculosis is best described as
A
B
C
D
4.
Cells taken from a mushroom.
Stomach of a spider.
Lung tissue of a chicken.
Flower of a rose plant.
36.
18.
9.
None of the above.
Which of the following secretion does NOT contain enzymes?
A
B
C
D
Gastric (stomach) secretions.
Bile.
Saliva.
Pancreatic juice.
2
6.
Which of the following does not have membrane-bound nuclei in their cells?
A
B
C
D
7.
The part of the digestive tract (in human) with lowest pH is the
A
B
C
D
8.
A fern growing on the tree.
A mushroom growing on dead wood.
Penicillium growing on an orange.
None of the above is autotrophic.
Which of the following is NOT true of chlorophyll?
A
B
C
D
10.
stomach.
small intestine.
mouth.
rectum.
Which of the following is autotrophic?
A
B
C
D
9.
Insects.
Prokayotes.
Bryophytes.
Gymnosperms.
It absorbs light at the red and blue ends of the spectrum.
It does not absorb green wavelengths of light.
It is found in mitochondria.
All the above are not true of chlorophyll.
The oxygen molecules released during photosynthesis come from
A
B
C
D
CO2 .
H2O .
ATP .
C6H12O6 .
3
11.
If A is a dominant gene and a is recessive, in the cross between Aa x aa, the
percentage of individuals with the A phenotype is:
A
B
C
D
12.
The leaves (fronds) of a fern are parts of the ___________ phase of the plant.
A
B
C
D
13.
Sister chromatids.
The spindle.
Homologous chromosomes.
Endoplasmic recticulum
A plant's tendency to bend toward a source of light is called
A
B
C
D
15.
haploid
diploid
triploid
tetraploid
Which of the following segregates during anaphase of meiosis I ?
A
B
C
D
14.
0.
25.
50.
100.
phototropism.
photoperiodism.
gravitropism.
thigmotropism.
A virus basically consists of
A
B
C
D
RNA or DNA and a membrane.
RNA or DNA and a protein coat.
proteins and cell membrane.
enzymes and a protein coat.
4
16.
If red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets are removed from a blood
sample, what is left is
A
B
C
D
17.
At the end of meiosis II, the number of gametes that produced from a single
germ cell is
A
B
C
D
18.
Smooth muscle.
Cardiac muscle.
Skeletal muscle.
Intestinal muscle.
The physical home of a species is its
A
B
C
D
20.
2.
4.
8.
16.
Which of the following types of muscle tissue is under voluntary control?
A
B
C
D
19.
cytoplasm.
plasma.
lymph.
albumin.
community.
ecosystem.
predator.
habitat.
In higher plants, sugar synthesized in the leaves is transported to other parts of
the plant through the
A
B
C
D
xylem.
stomata.
phloem.
epidermis.
5
21.
DNA can be found in which of the following components of a plant cell?
A
B
C
D
22.
The DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30% of its bases. What
percentage of its bases would be adenine?
A
B
C
D
23.
nuclei.
ribosomes.
chloroplasts.
mitochondria.
Which of the following has cell wall made of chitin?
A
B
C
D
25.
0.
10.
20.
30.
A student took some plant tissues and ground them up in a buffer. After
centrifugation, he obtained some organelles from the pellet in the test tube. The
organelles were able to take up CO2 and give off O2. The organelles are most
likely
A
B
C
D
24.
Nucleus and cell wall.
Nucleus and vacuoles.
Nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Cell wall, vacuoles and chloroplasts.
Earthworm.
Rose.
Mushroom.
Snail.
A group of cells that perform a similar function are known as
A
B
C
D
tissues.
organs.
organ systems.
organisms.
6
26.
A fern is
A
B
C
D
27.
Which of the following is heterotrophic?
A
B
C
D
28.
photosynthesize under white light.
fail to thrive.
synthesize glucose indefinitely, using stored ATP and NADPH.
become parasitic in order to survive.
Which of the following are produced during light-dependent photosynthetic
reactions?
A
B
C
D
30.
A fern.
A rose plant.
A snail.
An orchid plant.
A scientist obtained a mutant albino seedling in the laboratory. The albino
seedling would
A
B
C
D
29.
a gymnosperm.
a pteridophyte.
a bryophyte.
an angiosperm.
Glucose, ATP, O2
Glucose, ATP, CO2
The acidic fluid in the stomach becomes slightly basic after it leaves the
stomach because the acids
A
B
C
D
become neutralized by sodium bicarbonate secreted from the pancreas.
remain in the stomach and never enter the small intestine.
become neutralized by amylase from intestine.
are absorbed by the small intestine.
7
31.
Which of the following secretion does NOT contain enzymes?
A
B
C
D
32.
In human, amylase is produced by the
A
B
C
D
33.
A pitcher plant and the insect it captures.
Bird flu virus and the bird it infected.
Tape worm and the animal it lives in.
Flea and the cat it lives on.
In the lungs, oxygen moves from air to blood by
A
B
C
D
35.
salivary glands only.
small intestine only.
pancreas only.
both salivary glands and pancreas.
Which of the following is NOT an example of two organisms in a parasitic
relationship?
A
B
C
D
34.
Intestinal wall secretions.
Bile.
Saliva.
Pancreatic juice.
diffusion.
osmosis.
bulk flow.
active transport.
Most of the oxygen in the blood is bound to
A
B
C
D
hemoglobin.
white blood cells.
carbon dioxide molecules.
plasma membrane.
8
36.
A student examined the root-tip cells of a plant and found that there are 18
chromosomes in each cell. How many chromosomes are there in the generative
cell of its pollen grain?
A
B
C
D
37.
A
All of the offspring will produce pink flowers.
All the offspring will have purple flowers.
All the offspring will have white flowers.
Half of the offspring will produce purple flowers and half will produce white
flowers.
Which of the following is NOT found in the epidermis of plants?
A
B
C
D
40.
haploid.
diploid.
triploid.
tetraploid.
If you cross-pollinate homozygous white (recessive) flowers and homozygous
purple (dominance) flowers of pea plants, which of the following type(s) of
offspring you will obtain?
B
C
D
39.
18.
9.
0.
During asexual reproduction in the black bread mold (Rhizopus sp), the spores
produced are
A
B
C
D
38.
36.
Root hairs.
Guard cells.
Pericyle.
All the above can be found in the epidermis of plants.
An “ecological niche” is best defined as
A
B
C
D
the physical environmental factors needed for survival.
the organism's habitat.
an organism's interactions with other organisms.
all the aspects of an organism's way of life.
9
41.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of animals?
A
B
C
D
42.
Which of the following consists of nothing but a protein coat that surrounds
genetic material?
A
B
C
D
43.
lymphatic fluid.
platelet.
collagen.
plasma.
A group of organs that function in a coordinated manner is known as
A
B
C
D
45.
Bacteria.
Pollen grains.
Viruses.
Algae.
The fluid portion of the blood is called the
A
B
C
D
44.
Sexual reproduction.
Eukaryotic.
Autotrophic.
Intra-specific competition.
tissues.
organelles.
organ systems.
organisms.
Which is smallest?
A
B
C
D
Artery.
Arteriole.
Capillary.
Venule.
10
46.
Which of the following are involved in conducting dissolved minerals from roots
to the rest of the plants?
A
B
C
D
47.
A typical angiosperm leaf consists of a leaf blade with stomata. Each stoma is
surrounded by
A
B
C
D
48.
A student found a tree in his garden that produced only male flowers. Which of
the following floral organs he is likely to find in the flower of this tree?
A
B
C
D
50.
bundle-shealth cells.
mesophyll cells.
endodermal cells.
guard cells.
The base-pairing rules for DNA are
A
B
C
D
49.
Companion cells, sieve tubes.
Tracheids, vessel elements.
Companion cells, vessel elements.
Tracheids, sieve tubes.
Sepals, petals, carpels.
Sepals, petals, stamens, carpels.
Petals, stamens, carpels.
Sepals, petals, stamens.
A student examined the generative cell of a pollen grain and found that there
were 20 chromosomes in each cell. What is the number of chromosomes in
each of the root-tip cells of the same plant?
A
B
C
D
5.
10.
20.
40.
11
51.
A fern is (an)
A
B
C
D
52.
A student brings a piece of bread with bread mold (Rhizopus sp) to the school.
The student is unlikely to find which of the following from bread mold?
A
B
C
D
53.
muscle and nerve ending.
glands in epithelial tissue.
dendrites and blood capillaries.
Which of the following is the extracellular matrix secreted by cartilage cells?
A
B
C
D
55.
Spores.
Hypha.
Chloroplasts.
Sporangia.
Hair is produced by
A
B
C
D
54.
gymnosperm.
vascular plant.
bryophyte.
angiosperm.
Bone.
Calcium phosphate.
Myoglobin.
Collagen.
A mycorrhiza is a
A
B
C
D
symbiotic relationship between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and roots of a land
plant.
parasitic relationship between a fungus and the roots of a land plant.
symbiotic relationship between a fungus and the roots of a land plant.
parasitic relationship between a fungus and an alga.
12
56.
Which of these statements regarding enzymes is FALSE?
A
B
C
D
57.
All of the following combinations are possible in the gametes of an organism that
is DdYy EXCEPT
A
B
C
D
58.
prophase.
metaphase.
interphase.
anaphase.
The products of photosynthesis are
A
B
C
D
60.
DY.
dY.
dd.
dy.
The longest period of a cell’s life cycle is
A
B
C
D
59.
Enzymes are proteins.
Enzymes display specificity for certain molecules to which they attach.
Enzymes provide energy for the reactions they catalyze.
The activity of enzymes can be regulated by factors in their environment.
glucose and amino acids.
carbon dioxide, water, and energy.
carbon dioxide, chlorophyll, and oxygen.
glucose and oxygen.
Which of the following statements is generally FALSE?
A
B
C
D
Parasites are generally smaller than their prey.
Slow growing species are likely to be pioneers in secondary succession.
Competition between members of two species is most intense when the
species are most similar.
The physical home of a species is its habitat.
END OF PAPER
13
UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
BIOLOGY
Duration
: 2 hours
1.
This paper is made up of 60 Multiple-Choice questions and comprises THIRTEEN
(13) printed pages.
2.
Do not write on the question paper.
3.
Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.
4.
Do not take any paper, including the question paper or unused answer sheets,
out of the examination hall.
1
Multiple-Choice Questions
Answer all questions in this section.
1.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a)
DNA provides the genetic code for the synthesis of proteins in all
organisms.
(b) In 1983, James Crick and Francis Watson identified and
described the double helix structure of DNA.
(c)
In the DNA helix, purines pair with pyrimidines via hydrogen
bonding.
(d) The two chains of polynucleotides in a DNA molecule are antiparallel and complement each other.
2.
Adenine comprised 40 % of the nitrogenous bases in the DNA of cells
from a bacterial clone. What was the percentage of guanine in the
DNA?
(a)
10 %
(b) 20 %
(c)
40 %
(d) 80 %
3.
All cells of an earthworm have the following components except
(a)
mitochondria.
(b) nuclei.
(c)
plasma membranes.
(d) cell walls.
4.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a)
Proteins are simple molecules.
(b) Carbohydrates are the major molecules from which muscle cells
of animals are constructed.
(c)
Amino acids contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and,
also, sulphur and phosphorous.
(d) Lipids are not a source of energy.
5.
All the following can be found in prokaryotic cells except
(a)
cell membranes.
(b) cytoplasma.
(c)
pili.
(d) nuclei.
2
6.
Chlorophylls are plant pigments that absorb light optimally in the
(a)
green and yellow wavelengths.
(b) green and blue wavelengths.
(c)
blue and red wavelengths.
(d) blue and infrared wavelengths.
7.
Which of the following plants take up carbon dioxide for
photosynthetic reactions during the night?
(a)
Hibiscus and lily plants.
(b) Spinach and cucumber plants.
(c)
Corn and sugar cane plants.
(d) Cactus and pineapple plants.
8.
Which of the following is a polysaccharide found in human muscle cells?
(a)
Myoglobin.
(b) Collagen.
(c)
Glycogen.
(d) Amylose.
9.
Which of the following statements is true of all enzymes?
(a)
All enzymes are denatured at 60 oC and higher.
(b) The active sites of all enzymes can only bind to only one type of
substrate.
(c)
All enzymes lower the activation energy of the reaction.
(d) All enzymes catalyze the degradation of large molecules into
smaller moieties.
10.
Monocotyledons are distinguished by all the following traits except
that
(a)
they have a single seed leave.
(b) their flowers have a three-part symmetry.
(c)
the veins on their leaves are not arranged in a net pattern.
(d) they include plants like orchids.
3
11.
The muscular system of all vertebrates does not include
(a)
smooth muscle cells.
(b) cardiac muscle cells.
(c)
skeletal muscle cells.
(d) epithelial muscle cells.
12.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a)
Most of the energy in an animal comes from the aerobic
breakdown of carbohydrates.
(b) In all respiratory systems of animals, the exchange of gases
needs a lot of energy.
(c)
In the respiratory systems of animals, gases cannot be
transported in the gaseous form.
(d) Seals have more heamoglobin than humans.
13.
A woman, who is a carrier of haemophilia, had phenotypically normal
parents and is married to a man without the recessive haemophilia
gene. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a)
All of her sons are haemophiliacs.
(b) All of her daughters are haemophiliacs.
(c)
Her father was a carrier of haemophilia.
(d) Her mother was a carrier of haemophilia.
14.
What is a codon?
(a)
A specific group of three sequential bases of mRNA that
recognizes and attracts specific amino acids using tRNA as an
intermediary.
(b) A specific group of three sequential bases of DNA that
recognizes and attracts specific amino acids using mRNA as an
intermediary.
(c)
A fragment of the DNA molecule which codes for a protein.
(d) A fragment of the DNA molecule which can undergo mutation.
15.
Which of the following is an autotroph?
(a) Shitake mushrooms.
(b) A fish.
(c) A virus.
(d) An apple tree.
4
16.
The C4-pathway of primary photosynthetic fixation is an adaptation of
plants to grow in
(a)
the desert.
(b) hot and dry conditions.
(c)
hot and high light conditions.
(d) All of the above conditions.
17. Most of our important crop plants come from the _________ family of
plants.
(a)
grass
(b) orchid
(c)
rose
18. The _______ is considered the most intelligent invertebrate.
(a)
grasshopper
(b) mosquito
(c)
squid
(d) crab
19. Impulses can travel very rapidly along the nerves in our leg muscles
because
(a)
there is a high concentration of sodium ions inside these nerve
cells.
(b) there is a high concentration of chloride ions inside these nerve
cells.
(c)
the nerve cells contain a high concentration of calcium ions.
(d) the nerves are insulated by thick myelin sheaths.
20. You have to weigh out 155 mg of sodium bicarbonate salt for an
experiment on photosynthesis. Your weighing machine shows weight
in terms of g (grams) only. How many g of sodium bicarbonate
powder do you need to weight out?
(a)
155 g
(b) 15.5 g
(c)
1.55 g
(d) 0.155 g
5
21.
In peas, tall stem length is dominant over short stem length. What
genotypic ratio would you expect in the offsprings of a cross between
a heterozygous tall plant and a homozygous short plant?
(a)
3 homozygous tall : 1 homozygous short.
(b) 1 homozygous tall : 3 homozygous short.
(c)
1 heterozygous tall : 1 homozygous short:2 heterozygous short.
(d) 1 heterozygous tall : 2 homozygous short:1 heterozygous short.
22.
Adjacent plant cell walls are cemented by the
(a)
cutin layer.
(b) primary wall
(c)
secondary wall.
(d) middle lamella.
23.
Which of the following class of compounds are generally hydrophobic?
(a)
Carbohydrates.
(b) Lipids.
(c)
Nucleic acids
(d) Proteins.
24.
Which of the following transport processes in cells requires ATP?
(a)
Simple diffusion.
(b) Facilitated diffusion.
(c)
Osmosis.
(d) Active Transport.
25.
Mary wants to determine the effect of temperature on the activity of a
enzyme she isolated from a plant growing in her garden. She can
expect that the activity of the enzyme would
(a)
increase constantly as temperature increases.
(b) decrease constantly as temperature increases.
(c)
increase to a certain level, then decrease, as temperature
increases.
(d) increase, then decrease, and increase again as temperature
increases.
6
26.
Which of the following is produced during both the cyclic and noncyclic transport of electrons of photosynthesis?
(a)
water
(b) ATP
(c)
oxygen
27.
During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is fixed by bonding to
(a)
glucose.
(b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
(c)
ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.
(d) ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase.
28.
Which of the following conditions favours photorespiration in plants?
(a)
Darkness.
(b) Plants growing near to each other.
(c)
Hot and dry conditions.
(d) Cool days.
29.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a)
Stomata are found on both leaves and green stems.
(b) Stomata allow CO2 and not O2 to pass through.
(c)
Stomata are specialized pores on plants.
(d) Stomata close when a plant is subjected to drought.
30.
Bacteriophages are
(a)
bacteria that infect viruses.
(b) bacteria that are parasitic.
(c)
viruses that infect bacteria.
(d) viruses that are parasitic.
7
31.
A restriction enzyme, used in recombinant DNA technology, is most
likely to
(a)
join DNA fragments together.
(b) cut DNA into fragments with sticky ends.
(c)
transfer a plasmid into a bacterial cell.
(d) stimulate cell division in transformed cells.
32.
Another term for neurons is
(a)
neutron.
(b) neutral sex cells.
(c)
blood cells.
(d) nerve cells.
33.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a)
Sexual reproduction is biologically an inexpensive process.
(b) The reproductive systems of most terrestrial animals depend on
external fertilization.
(c)
Many animal species do not use seasonal changes to coordinate
the timing of their reproductive systems.
(d) Sexual reproduction is the dominant form of reproduction
among animals.
34.
The definition of a hermaphrodite is that of
(a)
any organism that produces both eggs and sperm.
(b) a human male who has undergone a sex operation to be
changed into a female.
(c)
any organism that releases a lot of eggs into its own mouth.
(d) any organism that shows a high rate of haemoglobin production.
35.
Which of the following statements is true of fungi?
(a)
Fungi are autotrophs.
(b) The food-absorbing part of a fungus is the mycelium.
(c)
A mushroom is not classified as a fungus.
(d) Fungi are always harmful to the human race.
8
36.
Each
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
of the following is a function of epithelial tissue except
movement.
protection.
secretion.
sensory ability.
37.
Calcium in the muscle cells attaches to
(a)
the neurotransmitter.
(b) actin.
(c)
myosin.
(d) troponin.
38.
Mammals are unique among all vertebrates because they
(a)
do not lay eggs.
(b) have hair.
(c)
are warm-blooded.
(d) have a cartilaginous skeleton.
39.
PCR
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
40.
Each
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
is a technique used to
amplify a region of DNA.
chop us a source of DNA.
transfer genes.
create clone libraries.
of the following is a function of the Golgi complex except
collection of molecules.
distribution of molecules.
synthesis of molecules.
packaging of molecules.
9
41.
Which of the following refers specifically to the transport of water?
(a)
Energy transfer.
(b) Osmosis.
(c)
Active transport.
(d) Diffusion.
42.
Photosynthetic carbon fixation requires the expenditure of ATP
molecules. This ATP is generated by
(a)
formation of glucose during the light-independent reactions.
(b)
replenishment of the photosynthetic pigment.
(c)
chemiosmotic synthesis during the light-dependent reactions.
(d)
all of the above.
43.
Which of the genetic diseases stated below is sex-linked?
(a)
Cystic fibrosis.
(b) Haemophilia.
(c)
Hypercholesterolemia.
(d) Tay-Sachs disease.
44.
According to the Watson-Crick model of DNA, if you know that the
base-sequence of one strand is AATTCG, the sequence of the
complementary strand must be
(a) AATTCG.
(b) TTGGAC.
(c) TTAAGG.
(d) TTAAGC.
45.
DNA
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
makes RNA by
repair.
replication.
transcription.
translation.
10
46.
In creating recombinant DNA, the sticky ends of source DNA
fragments are joined to the sticky ends of ___________ produced by
the cutting up of a circular bacterial chromosome.
(a)
antibiotics
(b) clones
(c)
plasmids
(d) restriction enzymes
47.
A version of DNA that is made from processed RNA is called
(a)
a plasmid.
(b) a probe.
(c)
cDNA.
(d) mDNA.
48.
The transfer of working copies of genes from normal, healthy
individuals to afflicated individuals is known as
(a)
a piggyback vaccine.
(b) the Human Genome Project.
(c)
human gene therapy.
(d) DNA fingerprinting.
49.
Prokaryotes, including bacteria, lack
(a)
an organized nucleus.
(b) cells.
(c)
cytoplasm.
(d) DNA.
50.
Which of the following is not an arthropod?
(a)
Butterfly.
(b) Crayfish.
(c)
Earthworm.
(d) Spider.
11
51.
Unlike the sponges and flatworms, vertebrates have a
(a)
backbone.
(b) coelom.
(c)
exoskeleton.
(d) nervous system.
52.
Each
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
53.
Schwann cells, which envelop the axon at intervals along the length,
act as
(a)
dendrites.
(b) electrical insulators.
(c)
nerves.
(d) tracts.
54.
Which of the following does not promote biodiversity?
(a)
Introduction of exotic species.
(b) Larger size of an ecosystem.
(c)
Longer growing season.
(d) Climatic stability.
55.
The path of energy in complex ecosystems with animals often feeding
at various trophic levels is called a
(a)
community.
(b) food chain.
(c)
food web.
(d) mineral cycle.
of the following is a final product of human digestion except
amino acids.
fatty acids.
free sugars.
starch.
12
56.
Cristae are found in which of the following?
(a)
Chloroplasts.
(b) Mitochondria.
(c)
Nuclei.
(d) Lysosomes.
57.
Darwin believed that the major driving force in evolution was
(a)
molecular biology.
(b) natural selection.
(c)
divine creation.
(d) scientific creation.
58.
The key advantage of multicellularity is that
(a)
it allows the organism to be motile.
(b) it allows the organism to reproduce sexually.
(c) it allows the organism to photosynthesize.
(d) it allows special tissues to be formed within the organism.
59.
A mass of fungal filaments is called a
(a) colony.
(b) hyphae.
(c) mycelium.
(d) mycorrhizae.
60.
About 90 % of the water taken up by roots is lost to the atmosphere.
Which of the following structure accounts for the greatest loss of water
in plants?
(a) Stomata.
(b) Epidermes.
(c) Cuticles.
(d) Lenticels.
END OF PAPER
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